Intuitive explanation of the rank-nullity theorem Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Proof of rank nullity theoremDoes the rank-nullity theorem hold for infinite dimensional $V$?rank-nullity theorem clarificationRank-nullity theorem for free $mathbb Z$-modulesProving that $mathrmrank(T) = mathrmrank(L_A)$ and $mathrmnullity(T) = mathrmnullity(L_A)$, where $A=[T]_beta^gamma$.Find the rank and nullity of the following matrixQuestion on proof for why $operatornamerank(T) = operatornamerank(LA)$Question about rank-nullity theoremRank nullity theorem -bijectionsome confusion in Rank nullity theorem.
preposition before coffee
How were pictures turned from film to a big picture in a picture frame before digital scanning?
How could we fake a moon landing now?
C's equality operator on converted pointers
macOS: Name for app shortcut screen found by pinching with thumb and three fingers
Electrolysis of water: Which equations to use? (IB Chem)
How fail-safe is nr as stop bytes?
Customizing QGIS plugins
How to pronounce 伝統色
What does Turing mean by this statement?
Where is the Data Import Wizard Error Log
Why we try to capture variability?
Did any compiler fully use 80-bit floating point?
What would you call this weird metallic apparatus that allows you to lift people?
The Nth Gryphon Number
Dyck paths with extra diagonals from valleys (Laser construction)
Why does 14 CFR have skipped subparts in my ASA 2019 FAR/AIM book?
Lagrange four-squares theorem --- deterministic complexity
Would it be easier to apply for a UK visa if there is a host family to sponsor for you in going there?
Why are vacuum tubes still used in amateur radios?
How many time has Arya actually used Needle?
Project Euler #1 in C++
Why do early math courses focus on the cross sections of a cone and not on other 3D objects?
A letter with no particular backstory
Intuitive explanation of the rank-nullity theorem
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Proof of rank nullity theoremDoes the rank-nullity theorem hold for infinite dimensional $V$?rank-nullity theorem clarificationRank-nullity theorem for free $mathbb Z$-modulesProving that $mathrmrank(T) = mathrmrank(L_A)$ and $mathrmnullity(T) = mathrmnullity(L_A)$, where $A=[T]_beta^gamma$.Find the rank and nullity of the following matrixQuestion on proof for why $operatornamerank(T) = operatornamerank(LA)$Question about rank-nullity theoremRank nullity theorem -bijectionsome confusion in Rank nullity theorem.
$begingroup$
I understand that if you have a linear transformation from $U$ to $V$ with, say, $operatornamedim U = 3$, $operatornamerank T = 2$, then the set of points that map onto the $0$ vector will lie along a straight line, and therefore $operatornamenullityT = 1$.
Can anyone offer an intuitive explanation of why this is always true?
linear-algebra matrix-rank
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I understand that if you have a linear transformation from $U$ to $V$ with, say, $operatornamedim U = 3$, $operatornamerank T = 2$, then the set of points that map onto the $0$ vector will lie along a straight line, and therefore $operatornamenullityT = 1$.
Can anyone offer an intuitive explanation of why this is always true?
linear-algebra matrix-rank
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I understand that if you have a linear transformation from $U$ to $V$ with, say, $operatornamedim U = 3$, $operatornamerank T = 2$, then the set of points that map onto the $0$ vector will lie along a straight line, and therefore $operatornamenullityT = 1$.
Can anyone offer an intuitive explanation of why this is always true?
linear-algebra matrix-rank
$endgroup$
I understand that if you have a linear transformation from $U$ to $V$ with, say, $operatornamedim U = 3$, $operatornamerank T = 2$, then the set of points that map onto the $0$ vector will lie along a straight line, and therefore $operatornamenullityT = 1$.
Can anyone offer an intuitive explanation of why this is always true?
linear-algebra matrix-rank
linear-algebra matrix-rank
edited 1 hour ago
Alex Ortiz
11.6k21442
11.6k21442
asked 4 hours ago
JosephJoseph
475
475
1
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
I like this question. Let me take a shot at it. I think it's best to think of the rank as the dimension of the range (or image).
Consider first a nonsingular transformation $T$ on an $n-$dimensional vector space. We know that the rank is $n$ and the nullity $0$, so the theorem holds in this case. $T$ maps a basis to a basis. Suppose we modify $T$ by mapping the first vector in the basis to $0$. Call the new transformation $T_1$. Clearly, the nullity of $T$ is $1$. What is the rank? In the image of $T$ one of the basis vectors collapses to $0$ when we go to the image of $T_1,$ so the image of $T_1$ has dimension $n-1$ and the theorem hold in this case.
Now continue the process. If $T_2$ is the same as $T_1$ except that the second basis vector is mapped to $0$, then the nullity will be $2$, and the image will be of dimension $n-2$, because again, one dimension collapses.
Of course, we can continue until we arrive at $T_n=0$ and the theorem always holds.
I hope this makes intuitive sense to you.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like saulspatz' answer because it is very hands-on. I would like to offer another perspective, one based on the fact that linear transformations are characterized by their ranks, up to choice of bases in domain and codomain. The key is in this proposition:
Proposition. Suppose $Tcolon Vto W$ is a linear transformation with $dim V = n$ and $dim W = m$ and $operatornamerank T = r leqslant m$. Then there are bases $v_1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_m$ for $W$ such that the matrix for $T$ with respect to these bases is
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & 0_rtimes n-r \ 0_m-rtimes r & 0_m-rtimes n-rendpmatrix,
$$
where $I_rtimes r$ is the $rtimes r$ identity matrix, and the various $0_asttimesast$ are the zero matrices of the corresponding dimensions. As a quick corollary of the proposition, we can read off of the matrix for $T$ in these bases that
beginalign*
operatornamerankT &stackreltextdef= dim operatornameimageT = r, \
operatornamenullityT &stackreltextdef= dim ker T = n-r,
endalign*
and hence gain the rank-nullity theorem:
$$
dim V = n = r + (n-r) = operatornamerankT + operatornamenullityT.
$$
For a quick proof of the proposition, keeping things as "coarse" as possible for intuition's sake, because the rank of $T$ is $r$, take vectors $v_1,dots,v_r$ in $V$ such that $w_1 = T(v_1),dots,w_r = T(v_r)$ span the image of $T$. Extend $v_1,dots,v_r$ to a basis $v_1,dots,v_r,v_r+1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_r$ to a basis $w_1,dots,w_r,w_r+1,dots,w_m$ for $W$. With respect to these bases, we quickly determine
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & ast \ 0_m-rtimes r & astendpmatrix.
$$
Because the rank of $T$ is $r$, and the first $r$ columns of the matrix for $T$ are linearly independent, we determine that (possibly after some row and column operations) the two $ast$'s in the above matrix for $T$ have to be the zero matrices of appropriate dimensions, hence the proposition.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
StackExchange.ready(function()
var channelOptions =
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
;
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);
StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
createEditor();
);
else
createEditor();
);
function createEditor()
StackExchange.prepareEditor(
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader:
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
,
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
);
);
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3193933%2fintuitive-explanation-of-the-rank-nullity-theorem%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
I like this question. Let me take a shot at it. I think it's best to think of the rank as the dimension of the range (or image).
Consider first a nonsingular transformation $T$ on an $n-$dimensional vector space. We know that the rank is $n$ and the nullity $0$, so the theorem holds in this case. $T$ maps a basis to a basis. Suppose we modify $T$ by mapping the first vector in the basis to $0$. Call the new transformation $T_1$. Clearly, the nullity of $T$ is $1$. What is the rank? In the image of $T$ one of the basis vectors collapses to $0$ when we go to the image of $T_1,$ so the image of $T_1$ has dimension $n-1$ and the theorem hold in this case.
Now continue the process. If $T_2$ is the same as $T_1$ except that the second basis vector is mapped to $0$, then the nullity will be $2$, and the image will be of dimension $n-2$, because again, one dimension collapses.
Of course, we can continue until we arrive at $T_n=0$ and the theorem always holds.
I hope this makes intuitive sense to you.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like this question. Let me take a shot at it. I think it's best to think of the rank as the dimension of the range (or image).
Consider first a nonsingular transformation $T$ on an $n-$dimensional vector space. We know that the rank is $n$ and the nullity $0$, so the theorem holds in this case. $T$ maps a basis to a basis. Suppose we modify $T$ by mapping the first vector in the basis to $0$. Call the new transformation $T_1$. Clearly, the nullity of $T$ is $1$. What is the rank? In the image of $T$ one of the basis vectors collapses to $0$ when we go to the image of $T_1,$ so the image of $T_1$ has dimension $n-1$ and the theorem hold in this case.
Now continue the process. If $T_2$ is the same as $T_1$ except that the second basis vector is mapped to $0$, then the nullity will be $2$, and the image will be of dimension $n-2$, because again, one dimension collapses.
Of course, we can continue until we arrive at $T_n=0$ and the theorem always holds.
I hope this makes intuitive sense to you.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like this question. Let me take a shot at it. I think it's best to think of the rank as the dimension of the range (or image).
Consider first a nonsingular transformation $T$ on an $n-$dimensional vector space. We know that the rank is $n$ and the nullity $0$, so the theorem holds in this case. $T$ maps a basis to a basis. Suppose we modify $T$ by mapping the first vector in the basis to $0$. Call the new transformation $T_1$. Clearly, the nullity of $T$ is $1$. What is the rank? In the image of $T$ one of the basis vectors collapses to $0$ when we go to the image of $T_1,$ so the image of $T_1$ has dimension $n-1$ and the theorem hold in this case.
Now continue the process. If $T_2$ is the same as $T_1$ except that the second basis vector is mapped to $0$, then the nullity will be $2$, and the image will be of dimension $n-2$, because again, one dimension collapses.
Of course, we can continue until we arrive at $T_n=0$ and the theorem always holds.
I hope this makes intuitive sense to you.
$endgroup$
I like this question. Let me take a shot at it. I think it's best to think of the rank as the dimension of the range (or image).
Consider first a nonsingular transformation $T$ on an $n-$dimensional vector space. We know that the rank is $n$ and the nullity $0$, so the theorem holds in this case. $T$ maps a basis to a basis. Suppose we modify $T$ by mapping the first vector in the basis to $0$. Call the new transformation $T_1$. Clearly, the nullity of $T$ is $1$. What is the rank? In the image of $T$ one of the basis vectors collapses to $0$ when we go to the image of $T_1,$ so the image of $T_1$ has dimension $n-1$ and the theorem hold in this case.
Now continue the process. If $T_2$ is the same as $T_1$ except that the second basis vector is mapped to $0$, then the nullity will be $2$, and the image will be of dimension $n-2$, because again, one dimension collapses.
Of course, we can continue until we arrive at $T_n=0$ and the theorem always holds.
I hope this makes intuitive sense to you.
answered 3 hours ago
saulspatzsaulspatz
17.6k31536
17.6k31536
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like saulspatz' answer because it is very hands-on. I would like to offer another perspective, one based on the fact that linear transformations are characterized by their ranks, up to choice of bases in domain and codomain. The key is in this proposition:
Proposition. Suppose $Tcolon Vto W$ is a linear transformation with $dim V = n$ and $dim W = m$ and $operatornamerank T = r leqslant m$. Then there are bases $v_1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_m$ for $W$ such that the matrix for $T$ with respect to these bases is
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & 0_rtimes n-r \ 0_m-rtimes r & 0_m-rtimes n-rendpmatrix,
$$
where $I_rtimes r$ is the $rtimes r$ identity matrix, and the various $0_asttimesast$ are the zero matrices of the corresponding dimensions. As a quick corollary of the proposition, we can read off of the matrix for $T$ in these bases that
beginalign*
operatornamerankT &stackreltextdef= dim operatornameimageT = r, \
operatornamenullityT &stackreltextdef= dim ker T = n-r,
endalign*
and hence gain the rank-nullity theorem:
$$
dim V = n = r + (n-r) = operatornamerankT + operatornamenullityT.
$$
For a quick proof of the proposition, keeping things as "coarse" as possible for intuition's sake, because the rank of $T$ is $r$, take vectors $v_1,dots,v_r$ in $V$ such that $w_1 = T(v_1),dots,w_r = T(v_r)$ span the image of $T$. Extend $v_1,dots,v_r$ to a basis $v_1,dots,v_r,v_r+1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_r$ to a basis $w_1,dots,w_r,w_r+1,dots,w_m$ for $W$. With respect to these bases, we quickly determine
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & ast \ 0_m-rtimes r & astendpmatrix.
$$
Because the rank of $T$ is $r$, and the first $r$ columns of the matrix for $T$ are linearly independent, we determine that (possibly after some row and column operations) the two $ast$'s in the above matrix for $T$ have to be the zero matrices of appropriate dimensions, hence the proposition.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like saulspatz' answer because it is very hands-on. I would like to offer another perspective, one based on the fact that linear transformations are characterized by their ranks, up to choice of bases in domain and codomain. The key is in this proposition:
Proposition. Suppose $Tcolon Vto W$ is a linear transformation with $dim V = n$ and $dim W = m$ and $operatornamerank T = r leqslant m$. Then there are bases $v_1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_m$ for $W$ such that the matrix for $T$ with respect to these bases is
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & 0_rtimes n-r \ 0_m-rtimes r & 0_m-rtimes n-rendpmatrix,
$$
where $I_rtimes r$ is the $rtimes r$ identity matrix, and the various $0_asttimesast$ are the zero matrices of the corresponding dimensions. As a quick corollary of the proposition, we can read off of the matrix for $T$ in these bases that
beginalign*
operatornamerankT &stackreltextdef= dim operatornameimageT = r, \
operatornamenullityT &stackreltextdef= dim ker T = n-r,
endalign*
and hence gain the rank-nullity theorem:
$$
dim V = n = r + (n-r) = operatornamerankT + operatornamenullityT.
$$
For a quick proof of the proposition, keeping things as "coarse" as possible for intuition's sake, because the rank of $T$ is $r$, take vectors $v_1,dots,v_r$ in $V$ such that $w_1 = T(v_1),dots,w_r = T(v_r)$ span the image of $T$. Extend $v_1,dots,v_r$ to a basis $v_1,dots,v_r,v_r+1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_r$ to a basis $w_1,dots,w_r,w_r+1,dots,w_m$ for $W$. With respect to these bases, we quickly determine
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & ast \ 0_m-rtimes r & astendpmatrix.
$$
Because the rank of $T$ is $r$, and the first $r$ columns of the matrix for $T$ are linearly independent, we determine that (possibly after some row and column operations) the two $ast$'s in the above matrix for $T$ have to be the zero matrices of appropriate dimensions, hence the proposition.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like saulspatz' answer because it is very hands-on. I would like to offer another perspective, one based on the fact that linear transformations are characterized by their ranks, up to choice of bases in domain and codomain. The key is in this proposition:
Proposition. Suppose $Tcolon Vto W$ is a linear transformation with $dim V = n$ and $dim W = m$ and $operatornamerank T = r leqslant m$. Then there are bases $v_1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_m$ for $W$ such that the matrix for $T$ with respect to these bases is
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & 0_rtimes n-r \ 0_m-rtimes r & 0_m-rtimes n-rendpmatrix,
$$
where $I_rtimes r$ is the $rtimes r$ identity matrix, and the various $0_asttimesast$ are the zero matrices of the corresponding dimensions. As a quick corollary of the proposition, we can read off of the matrix for $T$ in these bases that
beginalign*
operatornamerankT &stackreltextdef= dim operatornameimageT = r, \
operatornamenullityT &stackreltextdef= dim ker T = n-r,
endalign*
and hence gain the rank-nullity theorem:
$$
dim V = n = r + (n-r) = operatornamerankT + operatornamenullityT.
$$
For a quick proof of the proposition, keeping things as "coarse" as possible for intuition's sake, because the rank of $T$ is $r$, take vectors $v_1,dots,v_r$ in $V$ such that $w_1 = T(v_1),dots,w_r = T(v_r)$ span the image of $T$. Extend $v_1,dots,v_r$ to a basis $v_1,dots,v_r,v_r+1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_r$ to a basis $w_1,dots,w_r,w_r+1,dots,w_m$ for $W$. With respect to these bases, we quickly determine
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & ast \ 0_m-rtimes r & astendpmatrix.
$$
Because the rank of $T$ is $r$, and the first $r$ columns of the matrix for $T$ are linearly independent, we determine that (possibly after some row and column operations) the two $ast$'s in the above matrix for $T$ have to be the zero matrices of appropriate dimensions, hence the proposition.
$endgroup$
I like saulspatz' answer because it is very hands-on. I would like to offer another perspective, one based on the fact that linear transformations are characterized by their ranks, up to choice of bases in domain and codomain. The key is in this proposition:
Proposition. Suppose $Tcolon Vto W$ is a linear transformation with $dim V = n$ and $dim W = m$ and $operatornamerank T = r leqslant m$. Then there are bases $v_1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_m$ for $W$ such that the matrix for $T$ with respect to these bases is
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & 0_rtimes n-r \ 0_m-rtimes r & 0_m-rtimes n-rendpmatrix,
$$
where $I_rtimes r$ is the $rtimes r$ identity matrix, and the various $0_asttimesast$ are the zero matrices of the corresponding dimensions. As a quick corollary of the proposition, we can read off of the matrix for $T$ in these bases that
beginalign*
operatornamerankT &stackreltextdef= dim operatornameimageT = r, \
operatornamenullityT &stackreltextdef= dim ker T = n-r,
endalign*
and hence gain the rank-nullity theorem:
$$
dim V = n = r + (n-r) = operatornamerankT + operatornamenullityT.
$$
For a quick proof of the proposition, keeping things as "coarse" as possible for intuition's sake, because the rank of $T$ is $r$, take vectors $v_1,dots,v_r$ in $V$ such that $w_1 = T(v_1),dots,w_r = T(v_r)$ span the image of $T$. Extend $v_1,dots,v_r$ to a basis $v_1,dots,v_r,v_r+1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_r$ to a basis $w_1,dots,w_r,w_r+1,dots,w_m$ for $W$. With respect to these bases, we quickly determine
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & ast \ 0_m-rtimes r & astendpmatrix.
$$
Because the rank of $T$ is $r$, and the first $r$ columns of the matrix for $T$ are linearly independent, we determine that (possibly after some row and column operations) the two $ast$'s in the above matrix for $T$ have to be the zero matrices of appropriate dimensions, hence the proposition.
edited 1 hour ago
answered 3 hours ago
Alex OrtizAlex Ortiz
11.6k21442
11.6k21442
add a comment |
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3193933%2fintuitive-explanation-of-the-rank-nullity-theorem%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
1
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago