Was murdering a slave illegal in American slavery, and if so, what punishments were given for it?What was the impetus for some African nations to participate in the slave trade?Was there a movement for “humane” slavery?What if a slave entered a state without slavery?What degree of choice did slaves have over their sexual autonomy?What portion of Northerners were against slavery for humanitarian reasons in 1860 America?What was the first civilization to ban slavery?Besides armed insurrection what other resistance was offered by American slaves?Was American slavery economically advantageous primarily due to being able to also sell offspring?In historical slave societies, what jobs were left over for poor free laborers?What was John Hippisley's worldview when he advocated for the slave trade?
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Was murdering a slave illegal in American slavery, and if so, what punishments were given for it?
What was the impetus for some African nations to participate in the slave trade?Was there a movement for “humane” slavery?What if a slave entered a state without slavery?What degree of choice did slaves have over their sexual autonomy?What portion of Northerners were against slavery for humanitarian reasons in 1860 America?What was the first civilization to ban slavery?Besides armed insurrection what other resistance was offered by American slaves?Was American slavery economically advantageous primarily due to being able to also sell offspring?In historical slave societies, what jobs were left over for poor free laborers?What was John Hippisley's worldview when he advocated for the slave trade?
Was there any punishment for killing slaves, and what punishment was given for it, and was it enforced?
united-states 19th-century 18th-century slavery
asked 4 hours ago
The ZThe Z
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Was there any punishment for killing slaves, and what punishment was given for it, and was it enforced?
united-states 19th-century 18th-century slavery
asked 4 hours ago
The ZThe Z
26519
add a comment |
Was there any punishment for killing slaves, and what punishment was given for it, and was it enforced?
united-states 19th-century 18th-century slavery
asked 4 hours ago
The ZThe Z
26519
Was there any punishment for killing slaves, and what punishment was given for it, and was it enforced?
united-states 19th-century 18th-century slavery
united-states 19th-century 18th-century slavery
asked 4 hours ago
The ZThe Z
26519
asked 4 hours ago
The ZThe Z
26519
edited 1 hour ago
The Z
asked 4 hours ago
The ZThe Z
26519
asked 4 hours ago
The ZThe Z
26519
asked 4 hours ago
The ZThe Z
26519
26519
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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Yes, murder of a slave was illegal in the antebellum South, and it was a capital offence.
An example is the case of John Hoover of North Carolina. He was arrested on 28 March 1839 for the murder of one of his slaves named Mira. He was brought to trial on 12 September 1839 before a jury of his peers (i.e. 12 male slaveholders).
At his trial, it was recorded that Hoover had declared that:
“the negro was his own property and he had a right to do as he pleased with his property ...”
Perhaps surprisingly, the jury disagreed. On Friday 13 September 1839, he was convicted on the charge of murder. An appeal was heard at the North Carolina Supreme Court in Raleigh which upheld the verdict.
John Hoover was executed for murder in May 1840.
Details of the case can be found in:
Anthony V. Baker: “for the murder of his own female slave, a woman named Mira...” : Law, Slavery and Incoherence in Antebellum North Carolina
Interestingly, Anthony V. Baker shows how the laws of North Carolina had changed over time. In particular, a 1774 statute which had criminalised the murder of a slave, but which had also ameliorated the punishment for such a murder, such that an offender would:
“suffer twelve Months Imprisonment...” for the first offense and back to the more traditional punishment, “suffer[ing] Death, without benefit of Clergy....” for the second.
However, how often these laws were enforced is a different question. Not only that, but the difficulty in obtaining a conviction should not be underestimated. This was illustrated in the relatively well-known case of Eliza Rowand, who was charged & acquitted of the murder of one of her slaves in 1847.
For a wider view of the question, I'd recommend Andrew T. Fede's recent book: Homicide Justified: The Legality of Killing Slaves in the United States and the Atlantic World. This includes discussions around the issues raised by both of the cases mentioned above, and also includes an entire chapter dedicated to The Antebellum States' Law on Slave Homicide (Chapter 11).
answered 2 hours ago
sempaiscuba♦sempaiscuba
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1 Answer
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Yes, murder of a slave was illegal in the antebellum South, and it was a capital offence.
An example is the case of John Hoover of North Carolina. He was arrested on 28 March 1839 for the murder of one of his slaves named Mira. He was brought to trial on 12 September 1839 before a jury of his peers (i.e. 12 male slaveholders).
At his trial, it was recorded that Hoover had declared that:
“the negro was his own property and he had a right to do as he pleased with his property ...”
Perhaps surprisingly, the jury disagreed. On Friday 13 September 1839, he was convicted on the charge of murder. An appeal was heard at the North Carolina Supreme Court in Raleigh which upheld the verdict.
John Hoover was executed for murder in May 1840.
Details of the case can be found in:
Anthony V. Baker: “for the murder of his own female slave, a woman named Mira...” : Law, Slavery and Incoherence in Antebellum North Carolina
Interestingly, Anthony V. Baker shows how the laws of North Carolina had changed over time. In particular, a 1774 statute which had criminalised the murder of a slave, but which had also ameliorated the punishment for such a murder, such that an offender would:
“suffer twelve Months Imprisonment...” for the first offense and back to the more traditional punishment, “suffer[ing] Death, without benefit of Clergy....” for the second.
However, how often these laws were enforced is a different question. Not only that, but the difficulty in obtaining a conviction should not be underestimated. This was illustrated in the relatively well-known case of Eliza Rowand, who was charged & acquitted of the murder of one of her slaves in 1847.
For a wider view of the question, I'd recommend Andrew T. Fede's recent book: Homicide Justified: The Legality of Killing Slaves in the United States and the Atlantic World. This includes discussions around the issues raised by both of the cases mentioned above, and also includes an entire chapter dedicated to The Antebellum States' Law on Slave Homicide (Chapter 11).
answered 2 hours ago
sempaiscuba♦sempaiscuba
58.5k7206266
add a comment |
Yes, murder of a slave was illegal in the antebellum South, and it was a capital offence.
An example is the case of John Hoover of North Carolina. He was arrested on 28 March 1839 for the murder of one of his slaves named Mira. He was brought to trial on 12 September 1839 before a jury of his peers (i.e. 12 male slaveholders).
At his trial, it was recorded that Hoover had declared that:
“the negro was his own property and he had a right to do as he pleased with his property ...”
Perhaps surprisingly, the jury disagreed. On Friday 13 September 1839, he was convicted on the charge of murder. An appeal was heard at the North Carolina Supreme Court in Raleigh which upheld the verdict.
John Hoover was executed for murder in May 1840.
Details of the case can be found in:
Anthony V. Baker: “for the murder of his own female slave, a woman named Mira...” : Law, Slavery and Incoherence in Antebellum North Carolina
Interestingly, Anthony V. Baker shows how the laws of North Carolina had changed over time. In particular, a 1774 statute which had criminalised the murder of a slave, but which had also ameliorated the punishment for such a murder, such that an offender would:
“suffer twelve Months Imprisonment...” for the first offense and back to the more traditional punishment, “suffer[ing] Death, without benefit of Clergy....” for the second.
However, how often these laws were enforced is a different question. Not only that, but the difficulty in obtaining a conviction should not be underestimated. This was illustrated in the relatively well-known case of Eliza Rowand, who was charged & acquitted of the murder of one of her slaves in 1847.
For a wider view of the question, I'd recommend Andrew T. Fede's recent book: Homicide Justified: The Legality of Killing Slaves in the United States and the Atlantic World. This includes discussions around the issues raised by both of the cases mentioned above, and also includes an entire chapter dedicated to The Antebellum States' Law on Slave Homicide (Chapter 11).
answered 2 hours ago
sempaiscuba♦sempaiscuba
58.5k7206266
add a comment |
Yes, murder of a slave was illegal in the antebellum South, and it was a capital offence.
An example is the case of John Hoover of North Carolina. He was arrested on 28 March 1839 for the murder of one of his slaves named Mira. He was brought to trial on 12 September 1839 before a jury of his peers (i.e. 12 male slaveholders).
At his trial, it was recorded that Hoover had declared that:
“the negro was his own property and he had a right to do as he pleased with his property ...”
Perhaps surprisingly, the jury disagreed. On Friday 13 September 1839, he was convicted on the charge of murder. An appeal was heard at the North Carolina Supreme Court in Raleigh which upheld the verdict.
John Hoover was executed for murder in May 1840.
Details of the case can be found in:
Anthony V. Baker: “for the murder of his own female slave, a woman named Mira...” : Law, Slavery and Incoherence in Antebellum North Carolina
Interestingly, Anthony V. Baker shows how the laws of North Carolina had changed over time. In particular, a 1774 statute which had criminalised the murder of a slave, but which had also ameliorated the punishment for such a murder, such that an offender would:
“suffer twelve Months Imprisonment...” for the first offense and back to the more traditional punishment, “suffer[ing] Death, without benefit of Clergy....” for the second.
However, how often these laws were enforced is a different question. Not only that, but the difficulty in obtaining a conviction should not be underestimated. This was illustrated in the relatively well-known case of Eliza Rowand, who was charged & acquitted of the murder of one of her slaves in 1847.
For a wider view of the question, I'd recommend Andrew T. Fede's recent book: Homicide Justified: The Legality of Killing Slaves in the United States and the Atlantic World. This includes discussions around the issues raised by both of the cases mentioned above, and also includes an entire chapter dedicated to The Antebellum States' Law on Slave Homicide (Chapter 11).
answered 2 hours ago
sempaiscuba♦sempaiscuba
58.5k7206266
Yes, murder of a slave was illegal in the antebellum South, and it was a capital offence.
An example is the case of John Hoover of North Carolina. He was arrested on 28 March 1839 for the murder of one of his slaves named Mira. He was brought to trial on 12 September 1839 before a jury of his peers (i.e. 12 male slaveholders).
At his trial, it was recorded that Hoover had declared that:
“the negro was his own property and he had a right to do as he pleased with his property ...”
Perhaps surprisingly, the jury disagreed. On Friday 13 September 1839, he was convicted on the charge of murder. An appeal was heard at the North Carolina Supreme Court in Raleigh which upheld the verdict.
John Hoover was executed for murder in May 1840.
Details of the case can be found in:
Anthony V. Baker: “for the murder of his own female slave, a woman named Mira...” : Law, Slavery and Incoherence in Antebellum North Carolina
Interestingly, Anthony V. Baker shows how the laws of North Carolina had changed over time. In particular, a 1774 statute which had criminalised the murder of a slave, but which had also ameliorated the punishment for such a murder, such that an offender would:
“suffer twelve Months Imprisonment...” for the first offense and back to the more traditional punishment, “suffer[ing] Death, without benefit of Clergy....” for the second.
However, how often these laws were enforced is a different question. Not only that, but the difficulty in obtaining a conviction should not be underestimated. This was illustrated in the relatively well-known case of Eliza Rowand, who was charged & acquitted of the murder of one of her slaves in 1847.
For a wider view of the question, I'd recommend Andrew T. Fede's recent book: Homicide Justified: The Legality of Killing Slaves in the United States and the Atlantic World. This includes discussions around the issues raised by both of the cases mentioned above, and also includes an entire chapter dedicated to The Antebellum States' Law on Slave Homicide (Chapter 11).
answered 2 hours ago
sempaiscuba♦sempaiscuba
58.5k7206266
edited 2 hours ago
answered 2 hours ago
sempaiscuba♦sempaiscuba
58.5k7206266
answered 2 hours ago
sempaiscuba♦sempaiscuba
58.5k7206266
answered 2 hours ago
sempaiscuba♦sempaiscuba
58.5k7206266
58.5k7206266
add a comment |
add a comment |
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