Why are there two different versions of the Decalogue?Why are there so many accounts of the Hebrews' killing their neighbors and so few of their being kind or good?Is there a site where I can see several different jewish translations at the same time?Why do Sifrei Emes use different taamim?Are there any jokes in tanach?What puns are there in Tanach?Are there any Jewish miracles?Are there any tanakh search engines?Why do Jewish hebrew bibles have a different number of chapters in Joel and Malachi, who changed it and Why?What are the reasons or rules for the different variations in vowels on the Tetragrammaton?Are there any examples in the Tanach where somebody is being cynical?

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Why are there two different versions of the Decalogue?


Why are there so many accounts of the Hebrews' killing their neighbors and so few of their being kind or good?Is there a site where I can see several different jewish translations at the same time?Why do Sifrei Emes use different taamim?Are there any jokes in tanach?What puns are there in Tanach?Are there any Jewish miracles?Are there any tanakh search engines?Why do Jewish hebrew bibles have a different number of chapters in Joel and Malachi, who changed it and Why?What are the reasons or rules for the different variations in vowels on the Tetragrammaton?Are there any examples in the Tanach where somebody is being cynical?













2















Why are there two different versions of the Sabbath commandment in Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5? In Exodus 20 the Sabbath recalls the cosmogony in six days, but in Deuteronmy 5 the Sabbath memorializes the deliverance from slavery in Egypt.




י כִּי שֵׁשֶׁת-יָמִים עָשָׂה יְהוָה אֶת-הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֶת-הָאָרֶץ, אֶת-הַיָּם וְאֶת-כָּל-אֲשֶׁר-בָּם, וַיָּנַח, בַּיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי; עַל-כֵּן, בֵּרַךְ יְהוָה אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת--וַיְקַדְּשֵׁהוּ. {ס (Exodus 20:10)



וְזָכַרְתָּ, כִּי עֶבֶד הָיִיתָ בְּאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם, וַיֹּצִאֲךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ מִשָּׁם, בְּיָד חֲזָקָה וּבִזְרֹעַ נְטוּיָה; עַל-כֵּן, צִוְּךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ, לַעֲשׂוֹת, אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת. (Deuteronomy 5:14)




'The introductory statements for each of the versions of this commandment use unique language to describe the active commemoration of Shabbat - "to remember", on the one hand, and "to guard", on the other. In both versions, the main body of the commandment consists of a similar list of laws, albeit more fully developed by presumably explanatory material in Devarim. The conclusions drawn by each of the two versions seem to offer mutually exclusive philosophical underpinnings for the Shabbat.' (An article at Aish.com)



What were the original words spoken by God on Mount Sinai?










share|improve this question



















  • 1





    Maybe God originally said both?

    – Double AA
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    @Double AA Not plausible.

    – Clifford Durousseau
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    Why not? Even humans can sometimes say two sounds at once if they are skilled

    – Double AA
    3 hours ago












  • @Double AA What do the rabbinic sources say about this problem?

    – Clifford Durousseau
    3 hours ago












  • @CliffordDurousseau Your question touches on many different ideas which would require a great deal of discussion. Traditional Jewish teaching does, in fact, explain that the original communication was by G-d directly and because of the intense nature of that transmission, caused the souls of all the people to expire from their bodies. That is what we say each Shabbat in the 1st verse of the Lecha Dodi piyut, “שמור וזכור בדבור אחד וכו׳”. The entire nation was resurrected and the message was then passed to us via Moshe. What is written in Shemot 20:2-14 is the message G-d gave to Moshe 1st.

    – Yaacov Deane
    52 mins ago















2















Why are there two different versions of the Sabbath commandment in Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5? In Exodus 20 the Sabbath recalls the cosmogony in six days, but in Deuteronmy 5 the Sabbath memorializes the deliverance from slavery in Egypt.




י כִּי שֵׁשֶׁת-יָמִים עָשָׂה יְהוָה אֶת-הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֶת-הָאָרֶץ, אֶת-הַיָּם וְאֶת-כָּל-אֲשֶׁר-בָּם, וַיָּנַח, בַּיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי; עַל-כֵּן, בֵּרַךְ יְהוָה אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת--וַיְקַדְּשֵׁהוּ. {ס (Exodus 20:10)



וְזָכַרְתָּ, כִּי עֶבֶד הָיִיתָ בְּאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם, וַיֹּצִאֲךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ מִשָּׁם, בְּיָד חֲזָקָה וּבִזְרֹעַ נְטוּיָה; עַל-כֵּן, צִוְּךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ, לַעֲשׂוֹת, אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת. (Deuteronomy 5:14)




'The introductory statements for each of the versions of this commandment use unique language to describe the active commemoration of Shabbat - "to remember", on the one hand, and "to guard", on the other. In both versions, the main body of the commandment consists of a similar list of laws, albeit more fully developed by presumably explanatory material in Devarim. The conclusions drawn by each of the two versions seem to offer mutually exclusive philosophical underpinnings for the Shabbat.' (An article at Aish.com)



What were the original words spoken by God on Mount Sinai?










share|improve this question



















  • 1





    Maybe God originally said both?

    – Double AA
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    @Double AA Not plausible.

    – Clifford Durousseau
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    Why not? Even humans can sometimes say two sounds at once if they are skilled

    – Double AA
    3 hours ago












  • @Double AA What do the rabbinic sources say about this problem?

    – Clifford Durousseau
    3 hours ago












  • @CliffordDurousseau Your question touches on many different ideas which would require a great deal of discussion. Traditional Jewish teaching does, in fact, explain that the original communication was by G-d directly and because of the intense nature of that transmission, caused the souls of all the people to expire from their bodies. That is what we say each Shabbat in the 1st verse of the Lecha Dodi piyut, “שמור וזכור בדבור אחד וכו׳”. The entire nation was resurrected and the message was then passed to us via Moshe. What is written in Shemot 20:2-14 is the message G-d gave to Moshe 1st.

    – Yaacov Deane
    52 mins ago













2












2








2


1






Why are there two different versions of the Sabbath commandment in Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5? In Exodus 20 the Sabbath recalls the cosmogony in six days, but in Deuteronmy 5 the Sabbath memorializes the deliverance from slavery in Egypt.




י כִּי שֵׁשֶׁת-יָמִים עָשָׂה יְהוָה אֶת-הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֶת-הָאָרֶץ, אֶת-הַיָּם וְאֶת-כָּל-אֲשֶׁר-בָּם, וַיָּנַח, בַּיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי; עַל-כֵּן, בֵּרַךְ יְהוָה אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת--וַיְקַדְּשֵׁהוּ. {ס (Exodus 20:10)



וְזָכַרְתָּ, כִּי עֶבֶד הָיִיתָ בְּאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם, וַיֹּצִאֲךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ מִשָּׁם, בְּיָד חֲזָקָה וּבִזְרֹעַ נְטוּיָה; עַל-כֵּן, צִוְּךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ, לַעֲשׂוֹת, אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת. (Deuteronomy 5:14)




'The introductory statements for each of the versions of this commandment use unique language to describe the active commemoration of Shabbat - "to remember", on the one hand, and "to guard", on the other. In both versions, the main body of the commandment consists of a similar list of laws, albeit more fully developed by presumably explanatory material in Devarim. The conclusions drawn by each of the two versions seem to offer mutually exclusive philosophical underpinnings for the Shabbat.' (An article at Aish.com)



What were the original words spoken by God on Mount Sinai?










share|improve this question
















Why are there two different versions of the Sabbath commandment in Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5? In Exodus 20 the Sabbath recalls the cosmogony in six days, but in Deuteronmy 5 the Sabbath memorializes the deliverance from slavery in Egypt.




י כִּי שֵׁשֶׁת-יָמִים עָשָׂה יְהוָה אֶת-הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֶת-הָאָרֶץ, אֶת-הַיָּם וְאֶת-כָּל-אֲשֶׁר-בָּם, וַיָּנַח, בַּיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי; עַל-כֵּן, בֵּרַךְ יְהוָה אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת--וַיְקַדְּשֵׁהוּ. {ס (Exodus 20:10)



וְזָכַרְתָּ, כִּי עֶבֶד הָיִיתָ בְּאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם, וַיֹּצִאֲךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ מִשָּׁם, בְּיָד חֲזָקָה וּבִזְרֹעַ נְטוּיָה; עַל-כֵּן, צִוְּךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ, לַעֲשׂוֹת, אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת. (Deuteronomy 5:14)




'The introductory statements for each of the versions of this commandment use unique language to describe the active commemoration of Shabbat - "to remember", on the one hand, and "to guard", on the other. In both versions, the main body of the commandment consists of a similar list of laws, albeit more fully developed by presumably explanatory material in Devarim. The conclusions drawn by each of the two versions seem to offer mutually exclusive philosophical underpinnings for the Shabbat.' (An article at Aish.com)



What were the original words spoken by God on Mount Sinai?







tanach






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 2 hours ago







Clifford Durousseau

















asked 5 hours ago









Clifford DurousseauClifford Durousseau

1,192623




1,192623







  • 1





    Maybe God originally said both?

    – Double AA
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    @Double AA Not plausible.

    – Clifford Durousseau
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    Why not? Even humans can sometimes say two sounds at once if they are skilled

    – Double AA
    3 hours ago












  • @Double AA What do the rabbinic sources say about this problem?

    – Clifford Durousseau
    3 hours ago












  • @CliffordDurousseau Your question touches on many different ideas which would require a great deal of discussion. Traditional Jewish teaching does, in fact, explain that the original communication was by G-d directly and because of the intense nature of that transmission, caused the souls of all the people to expire from their bodies. That is what we say each Shabbat in the 1st verse of the Lecha Dodi piyut, “שמור וזכור בדבור אחד וכו׳”. The entire nation was resurrected and the message was then passed to us via Moshe. What is written in Shemot 20:2-14 is the message G-d gave to Moshe 1st.

    – Yaacov Deane
    52 mins ago












  • 1





    Maybe God originally said both?

    – Double AA
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    @Double AA Not plausible.

    – Clifford Durousseau
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    Why not? Even humans can sometimes say two sounds at once if they are skilled

    – Double AA
    3 hours ago












  • @Double AA What do the rabbinic sources say about this problem?

    – Clifford Durousseau
    3 hours ago












  • @CliffordDurousseau Your question touches on many different ideas which would require a great deal of discussion. Traditional Jewish teaching does, in fact, explain that the original communication was by G-d directly and because of the intense nature of that transmission, caused the souls of all the people to expire from their bodies. That is what we say each Shabbat in the 1st verse of the Lecha Dodi piyut, “שמור וזכור בדבור אחד וכו׳”. The entire nation was resurrected and the message was then passed to us via Moshe. What is written in Shemot 20:2-14 is the message G-d gave to Moshe 1st.

    – Yaacov Deane
    52 mins ago







1




1





Maybe God originally said both?

– Double AA
3 hours ago





Maybe God originally said both?

– Double AA
3 hours ago




1




1





@Double AA Not plausible.

– Clifford Durousseau
3 hours ago





@Double AA Not plausible.

– Clifford Durousseau
3 hours ago




1




1





Why not? Even humans can sometimes say two sounds at once if they are skilled

– Double AA
3 hours ago






Why not? Even humans can sometimes say two sounds at once if they are skilled

– Double AA
3 hours ago














@Double AA What do the rabbinic sources say about this problem?

– Clifford Durousseau
3 hours ago






@Double AA What do the rabbinic sources say about this problem?

– Clifford Durousseau
3 hours ago














@CliffordDurousseau Your question touches on many different ideas which would require a great deal of discussion. Traditional Jewish teaching does, in fact, explain that the original communication was by G-d directly and because of the intense nature of that transmission, caused the souls of all the people to expire from their bodies. That is what we say each Shabbat in the 1st verse of the Lecha Dodi piyut, “שמור וזכור בדבור אחד וכו׳”. The entire nation was resurrected and the message was then passed to us via Moshe. What is written in Shemot 20:2-14 is the message G-d gave to Moshe 1st.

– Yaacov Deane
52 mins ago





@CliffordDurousseau Your question touches on many different ideas which would require a great deal of discussion. Traditional Jewish teaching does, in fact, explain that the original communication was by G-d directly and because of the intense nature of that transmission, caused the souls of all the people to expire from their bodies. That is what we say each Shabbat in the 1st verse of the Lecha Dodi piyut, “שמור וזכור בדבור אחד וכו׳”. The entire nation was resurrected and the message was then passed to us via Moshe. What is written in Shemot 20:2-14 is the message G-d gave to Moshe 1st.

– Yaacov Deane
52 mins ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1














You can read in detail about the issue in this great article. To keep it short, Shevuot 20b mentions that the two versions were said in a single utterance, which is beyond human comprehension:




כדתניא זכור ושמור בדיבור אחד נאמרו, מה שאין יכול הפה לדבר, ומה שאין האוזן יכול לשמוע.‏



As it has been taught: Remember and keep were pronounced in a single utterance — an utterance which the mouth cannot utter, nor the ear hear.



Soncino translation




Traditional commentaries learn from these two versions the positive and the negative commandments of the Shabbat. Another implication that can be learnt from the same page in the Talmud, is that women are obligated to fulfil these positive time-bound commandments related to the Shabbat (kiddush, havdalah).






share|improve this answer

























  • Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

    – Alex
    2 hours ago






  • 1





    @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

    – Clifford Durousseau
    2 hours ago











  • @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

    – Kazi bácsi
    2 hours ago











  • @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

    – Kazi bácsi
    2 hours ago











  • @CliffordDurousseau [BTW, I have added two other explations: positive-negative and women]

    – Kazi bácsi
    2 hours ago


















0














Here's an explanation you might find satisfactory:



  1. The first difference between the 2 versions is who said it - the first was said by G-d and the second by Moses and as indirect prophecy (it wasn't preceded by "וידבר הק אל משה לאמר" - he described the Decalogue in his own words.


  2. The second is to whom they were said: the first was said to the Generation of the wilderness (דור המדבר), and the second to the Generation of the Land (דור הארץ).


Because the source and the audiences were different, the message targeted [slightly] different aspects of the Mitzvos, according to their abilities and predispositions.




The idea of the differences between the generations is explained in many sources but it is a subject on its own.






share|improve this answer






























    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1














    You can read in detail about the issue in this great article. To keep it short, Shevuot 20b mentions that the two versions were said in a single utterance, which is beyond human comprehension:




    כדתניא זכור ושמור בדיבור אחד נאמרו, מה שאין יכול הפה לדבר, ומה שאין האוזן יכול לשמוע.‏



    As it has been taught: Remember and keep were pronounced in a single utterance — an utterance which the mouth cannot utter, nor the ear hear.



    Soncino translation




    Traditional commentaries learn from these two versions the positive and the negative commandments of the Shabbat. Another implication that can be learnt from the same page in the Talmud, is that women are obligated to fulfil these positive time-bound commandments related to the Shabbat (kiddush, havdalah).






    share|improve this answer

























    • Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

      – Alex
      2 hours ago






    • 1





      @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

      – Clifford Durousseau
      2 hours ago











    • @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago











    • @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago











    • @CliffordDurousseau [BTW, I have added two other explations: positive-negative and women]

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago















    1














    You can read in detail about the issue in this great article. To keep it short, Shevuot 20b mentions that the two versions were said in a single utterance, which is beyond human comprehension:




    כדתניא זכור ושמור בדיבור אחד נאמרו, מה שאין יכול הפה לדבר, ומה שאין האוזן יכול לשמוע.‏



    As it has been taught: Remember and keep were pronounced in a single utterance — an utterance which the mouth cannot utter, nor the ear hear.



    Soncino translation




    Traditional commentaries learn from these two versions the positive and the negative commandments of the Shabbat. Another implication that can be learnt from the same page in the Talmud, is that women are obligated to fulfil these positive time-bound commandments related to the Shabbat (kiddush, havdalah).






    share|improve this answer

























    • Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

      – Alex
      2 hours ago






    • 1





      @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

      – Clifford Durousseau
      2 hours ago











    • @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago











    • @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago











    • @CliffordDurousseau [BTW, I have added two other explations: positive-negative and women]

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago













    1












    1








    1







    You can read in detail about the issue in this great article. To keep it short, Shevuot 20b mentions that the two versions were said in a single utterance, which is beyond human comprehension:




    כדתניא זכור ושמור בדיבור אחד נאמרו, מה שאין יכול הפה לדבר, ומה שאין האוזן יכול לשמוע.‏



    As it has been taught: Remember and keep were pronounced in a single utterance — an utterance which the mouth cannot utter, nor the ear hear.



    Soncino translation




    Traditional commentaries learn from these two versions the positive and the negative commandments of the Shabbat. Another implication that can be learnt from the same page in the Talmud, is that women are obligated to fulfil these positive time-bound commandments related to the Shabbat (kiddush, havdalah).






    share|improve this answer















    You can read in detail about the issue in this great article. To keep it short, Shevuot 20b mentions that the two versions were said in a single utterance, which is beyond human comprehension:




    כדתניא זכור ושמור בדיבור אחד נאמרו, מה שאין יכול הפה לדבר, ומה שאין האוזן יכול לשמוע.‏



    As it has been taught: Remember and keep were pronounced in a single utterance — an utterance which the mouth cannot utter, nor the ear hear.



    Soncino translation




    Traditional commentaries learn from these two versions the positive and the negative commandments of the Shabbat. Another implication that can be learnt from the same page in the Talmud, is that women are obligated to fulfil these positive time-bound commandments related to the Shabbat (kiddush, havdalah).







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 2 hours ago

























    answered 3 hours ago









    Kazi bácsiKazi bácsi

    2,82411028




    2,82411028












    • Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

      – Alex
      2 hours ago






    • 1





      @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

      – Clifford Durousseau
      2 hours ago











    • @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago











    • @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago











    • @CliffordDurousseau [BTW, I have added two other explations: positive-negative and women]

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago

















    • Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

      – Alex
      2 hours ago






    • 1





      @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

      – Clifford Durousseau
      2 hours ago











    • @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago











    • @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago











    • @CliffordDurousseau [BTW, I have added two other explations: positive-negative and women]

      – Kazi bácsi
      2 hours ago
















    Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

    – Alex
    2 hours ago





    Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

    – Alex
    2 hours ago




    1




    1





    @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

    – Clifford Durousseau
    2 hours ago





    @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

    – Clifford Durousseau
    2 hours ago













    @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

    – Kazi bácsi
    2 hours ago





    @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

    – Kazi bácsi
    2 hours ago













    @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

    – Kazi bácsi
    2 hours ago





    @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

    – Kazi bácsi
    2 hours ago













    @CliffordDurousseau [BTW, I have added two other explations: positive-negative and women]

    – Kazi bácsi
    2 hours ago





    @CliffordDurousseau [BTW, I have added two other explations: positive-negative and women]

    – Kazi bácsi
    2 hours ago











    0














    Here's an explanation you might find satisfactory:



    1. The first difference between the 2 versions is who said it - the first was said by G-d and the second by Moses and as indirect prophecy (it wasn't preceded by "וידבר הק אל משה לאמר" - he described the Decalogue in his own words.


    2. The second is to whom they were said: the first was said to the Generation of the wilderness (דור המדבר), and the second to the Generation of the Land (דור הארץ).


    Because the source and the audiences were different, the message targeted [slightly] different aspects of the Mitzvos, according to their abilities and predispositions.




    The idea of the differences between the generations is explained in many sources but it is a subject on its own.






    share|improve this answer



























      0














      Here's an explanation you might find satisfactory:



      1. The first difference between the 2 versions is who said it - the first was said by G-d and the second by Moses and as indirect prophecy (it wasn't preceded by "וידבר הק אל משה לאמר" - he described the Decalogue in his own words.


      2. The second is to whom they were said: the first was said to the Generation of the wilderness (דור המדבר), and the second to the Generation of the Land (דור הארץ).


      Because the source and the audiences were different, the message targeted [slightly] different aspects of the Mitzvos, according to their abilities and predispositions.




      The idea of the differences between the generations is explained in many sources but it is a subject on its own.






      share|improve this answer

























        0












        0








        0







        Here's an explanation you might find satisfactory:



        1. The first difference between the 2 versions is who said it - the first was said by G-d and the second by Moses and as indirect prophecy (it wasn't preceded by "וידבר הק אל משה לאמר" - he described the Decalogue in his own words.


        2. The second is to whom they were said: the first was said to the Generation of the wilderness (דור המדבר), and the second to the Generation of the Land (דור הארץ).


        Because the source and the audiences were different, the message targeted [slightly] different aspects of the Mitzvos, according to their abilities and predispositions.




        The idea of the differences between the generations is explained in many sources but it is a subject on its own.






        share|improve this answer













        Here's an explanation you might find satisfactory:



        1. The first difference between the 2 versions is who said it - the first was said by G-d and the second by Moses and as indirect prophecy (it wasn't preceded by "וידבר הק אל משה לאמר" - he described the Decalogue in his own words.


        2. The second is to whom they were said: the first was said to the Generation of the wilderness (דור המדבר), and the second to the Generation of the Land (דור הארץ).


        Because the source and the audiences were different, the message targeted [slightly] different aspects of the Mitzvos, according to their abilities and predispositions.




        The idea of the differences between the generations is explained in many sources but it is a subject on its own.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 40 mins ago









        Al BerkoAl Berko

        7,1462630




        7,1462630