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What are the conditions for RAA?


What are the necessary conditions for an action to be regarded as a free choice?Is “nothing” easy to understand?Succinct argument for the fundamental role of binary digits as information unitsConditions for DeductionProof of a Conditional and Discharged AssumptionsAre all sufficient conditions necessary?When does ℱx ≡ (x)ℱx ? What if x has the same domain in both?Satisfaction/validity and variable assignmentsWe do everything for pleasureWhy did we define vacuous statements as true rather than false?













2















My textbook states that:
enter image description here



In this case, however, what about situations where we can get Q ^ ~Q (sorry, unfamiliar with this formatting) without depending on P? For instance, the proof of EFQ:



1 (1) P A 
2 (2) ~P A
3 (3) ~Q A
1,2 (4) P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2 (5) ~~Q 3,4 RAA
1,2 (6) Q 5 DN


Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving? If we take the above definition of RAA to be true, don't we need 3 to be a dependency of P ^ ~P?










share|improve this question







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  • You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    9 hours ago















2















My textbook states that:
enter image description here



In this case, however, what about situations where we can get Q ^ ~Q (sorry, unfamiliar with this formatting) without depending on P? For instance, the proof of EFQ:



1 (1) P A 
2 (2) ~P A
3 (3) ~Q A
1,2 (4) P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2 (5) ~~Q 3,4 RAA
1,2 (6) Q 5 DN


Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving? If we take the above definition of RAA to be true, don't we need 3 to be a dependency of P ^ ~P?










share|improve this question







New contributor



user538118 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.



















  • You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    9 hours ago













2












2








2








My textbook states that:
enter image description here



In this case, however, what about situations where we can get Q ^ ~Q (sorry, unfamiliar with this formatting) without depending on P? For instance, the proof of EFQ:



1 (1) P A 
2 (2) ~P A
3 (3) ~Q A
1,2 (4) P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2 (5) ~~Q 3,4 RAA
1,2 (6) Q 5 DN


Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving? If we take the above definition of RAA to be true, don't we need 3 to be a dependency of P ^ ~P?










share|improve this question







New contributor



user538118 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











My textbook states that:
enter image description here



In this case, however, what about situations where we can get Q ^ ~Q (sorry, unfamiliar with this formatting) without depending on P? For instance, the proof of EFQ:



1 (1) P A 
2 (2) ~P A
3 (3) ~Q A
1,2 (4) P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2 (5) ~~Q 3,4 RAA
1,2 (6) Q 5 DN


Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving? If we take the above definition of RAA to be true, don't we need 3 to be a dependency of P ^ ~P?







logic propositional-logic






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user538118 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.










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asked 10 hours ago









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  • You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    9 hours ago

















  • You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    9 hours ago
















You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.

– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
9 hours ago





You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.

– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
9 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4














It only seems like a problem if we think the set Γ is consistent, in which case we feel like it's P which "makes" the premises inconsistent, and so must be used in the proof. But if Γ is already inconsistent, then we don't need to use P at all. Think about it in cases:



If Γ is consistent, and Γ, P ⊢ Q ∧ ¬Q, then Γ, P is inconsistent, so that Γ ⊢ ¬P



If, on the other hand, Γ is already inconsistent (as in your example proof), then Γ ⊢ ¬P anyways (since inconsistent sets of statements can prove anything).






share|improve this answer

























  • Aha that makes sense! Thank you.

    – user538118
    8 hours ago











  • Happy it helped :)

    – Adam
    6 hours ago


















1















Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving?




Because the rule of RAA states that whenever you have Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P , then you may infer that Γ Ⱶ ~~Q



Now, as Γ Ⱶ P ^ ~P when Γ is P, ~P, therefore we can add any additional premise, such as ~Q, and obtain the required sequent so as to be able to apply Reduction To Absurdity: Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P therefore Γ Ⱶ ~~Q



Here's the full sequent notation for the proof:



1 (1) P Ⱶ P A 
2 (2) ~P Ⱶ ~P A
3 (3) ~Q Ⱶ ~Q A
1,2 (4) P, ~P Ⱶ P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2,3 (X) P, ~P, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P 3,4 (skipped this line)
1,2 (5) P, ~P Ⱶ ~~Q X RAA (discharges assumption of ~Q)
1,2 (6) P, ~P Ⱶ Q 5 DN





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    2 Answers
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    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    4














    It only seems like a problem if we think the set Γ is consistent, in which case we feel like it's P which "makes" the premises inconsistent, and so must be used in the proof. But if Γ is already inconsistent, then we don't need to use P at all. Think about it in cases:



    If Γ is consistent, and Γ, P ⊢ Q ∧ ¬Q, then Γ, P is inconsistent, so that Γ ⊢ ¬P



    If, on the other hand, Γ is already inconsistent (as in your example proof), then Γ ⊢ ¬P anyways (since inconsistent sets of statements can prove anything).






    share|improve this answer

























    • Aha that makes sense! Thank you.

      – user538118
      8 hours ago











    • Happy it helped :)

      – Adam
      6 hours ago















    4














    It only seems like a problem if we think the set Γ is consistent, in which case we feel like it's P which "makes" the premises inconsistent, and so must be used in the proof. But if Γ is already inconsistent, then we don't need to use P at all. Think about it in cases:



    If Γ is consistent, and Γ, P ⊢ Q ∧ ¬Q, then Γ, P is inconsistent, so that Γ ⊢ ¬P



    If, on the other hand, Γ is already inconsistent (as in your example proof), then Γ ⊢ ¬P anyways (since inconsistent sets of statements can prove anything).






    share|improve this answer

























    • Aha that makes sense! Thank you.

      – user538118
      8 hours ago











    • Happy it helped :)

      – Adam
      6 hours ago













    4












    4








    4







    It only seems like a problem if we think the set Γ is consistent, in which case we feel like it's P which "makes" the premises inconsistent, and so must be used in the proof. But if Γ is already inconsistent, then we don't need to use P at all. Think about it in cases:



    If Γ is consistent, and Γ, P ⊢ Q ∧ ¬Q, then Γ, P is inconsistent, so that Γ ⊢ ¬P



    If, on the other hand, Γ is already inconsistent (as in your example proof), then Γ ⊢ ¬P anyways (since inconsistent sets of statements can prove anything).






    share|improve this answer















    It only seems like a problem if we think the set Γ is consistent, in which case we feel like it's P which "makes" the premises inconsistent, and so must be used in the proof. But if Γ is already inconsistent, then we don't need to use P at all. Think about it in cases:



    If Γ is consistent, and Γ, P ⊢ Q ∧ ¬Q, then Γ, P is inconsistent, so that Γ ⊢ ¬P



    If, on the other hand, Γ is already inconsistent (as in your example proof), then Γ ⊢ ¬P anyways (since inconsistent sets of statements can prove anything).







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 8 hours ago

























    answered 9 hours ago









    AdamAdam

    874112




    874112












    • Aha that makes sense! Thank you.

      – user538118
      8 hours ago











    • Happy it helped :)

      – Adam
      6 hours ago

















    • Aha that makes sense! Thank you.

      – user538118
      8 hours ago











    • Happy it helped :)

      – Adam
      6 hours ago
















    Aha that makes sense! Thank you.

    – user538118
    8 hours ago





    Aha that makes sense! Thank you.

    – user538118
    8 hours ago













    Happy it helped :)

    – Adam
    6 hours ago





    Happy it helped :)

    – Adam
    6 hours ago











    1















    Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving?




    Because the rule of RAA states that whenever you have Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P , then you may infer that Γ Ⱶ ~~Q



    Now, as Γ Ⱶ P ^ ~P when Γ is P, ~P, therefore we can add any additional premise, such as ~Q, and obtain the required sequent so as to be able to apply Reduction To Absurdity: Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P therefore Γ Ⱶ ~~Q



    Here's the full sequent notation for the proof:



    1 (1) P Ⱶ P A 
    2 (2) ~P Ⱶ ~P A
    3 (3) ~Q Ⱶ ~Q A
    1,2 (4) P, ~P Ⱶ P ^ ~P 1^2
    1,2,3 (X) P, ~P, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P 3,4 (skipped this line)
    1,2 (5) P, ~P Ⱶ ~~Q X RAA (discharges assumption of ~Q)
    1,2 (6) P, ~P Ⱶ Q 5 DN





    share|improve this answer



























      1















      Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving?




      Because the rule of RAA states that whenever you have Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P , then you may infer that Γ Ⱶ ~~Q



      Now, as Γ Ⱶ P ^ ~P when Γ is P, ~P, therefore we can add any additional premise, such as ~Q, and obtain the required sequent so as to be able to apply Reduction To Absurdity: Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P therefore Γ Ⱶ ~~Q



      Here's the full sequent notation for the proof:



      1 (1) P Ⱶ P A 
      2 (2) ~P Ⱶ ~P A
      3 (3) ~Q Ⱶ ~Q A
      1,2 (4) P, ~P Ⱶ P ^ ~P 1^2
      1,2,3 (X) P, ~P, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P 3,4 (skipped this line)
      1,2 (5) P, ~P Ⱶ ~~Q X RAA (discharges assumption of ~Q)
      1,2 (6) P, ~P Ⱶ Q 5 DN





      share|improve this answer

























        1












        1








        1








        Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving?




        Because the rule of RAA states that whenever you have Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P , then you may infer that Γ Ⱶ ~~Q



        Now, as Γ Ⱶ P ^ ~P when Γ is P, ~P, therefore we can add any additional premise, such as ~Q, and obtain the required sequent so as to be able to apply Reduction To Absurdity: Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P therefore Γ Ⱶ ~~Q



        Here's the full sequent notation for the proof:



        1 (1) P Ⱶ P A 
        2 (2) ~P Ⱶ ~P A
        3 (3) ~Q Ⱶ ~Q A
        1,2 (4) P, ~P Ⱶ P ^ ~P 1^2
        1,2,3 (X) P, ~P, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P 3,4 (skipped this line)
        1,2 (5) P, ~P Ⱶ ~~Q X RAA (discharges assumption of ~Q)
        1,2 (6) P, ~P Ⱶ Q 5 DN





        share|improve this answer














        Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving?




        Because the rule of RAA states that whenever you have Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P , then you may infer that Γ Ⱶ ~~Q



        Now, as Γ Ⱶ P ^ ~P when Γ is P, ~P, therefore we can add any additional premise, such as ~Q, and obtain the required sequent so as to be able to apply Reduction To Absurdity: Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P therefore Γ Ⱶ ~~Q



        Here's the full sequent notation for the proof:



        1 (1) P Ⱶ P A 
        2 (2) ~P Ⱶ ~P A
        3 (3) ~Q Ⱶ ~Q A
        1,2 (4) P, ~P Ⱶ P ^ ~P 1^2
        1,2,3 (X) P, ~P, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P 3,4 (skipped this line)
        1,2 (5) P, ~P Ⱶ ~~Q X RAA (discharges assumption of ~Q)
        1,2 (6) P, ~P Ⱶ Q 5 DN






        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 32 mins ago









        Graham KempGraham Kemp

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