Is the Indo-European language family made up?Can Modern Hebrew be considered an Indo-European language?Is there any agglutinative Indo-European language?Discontinuous morphemes in Indo-European languagesArticles in Indo-European LanguagesEvolution of Definite Articles in Indo-European LanguagesWhat decides the language family of a language the most structure/grammar or the vocabulary?Are Semitic and Indo-European languages at all related?Which Indo European language best preserves the features of Proto Indo-European?Is English the only Indo-European language without gendered nouns?Is the existence of a mixed branch of Indo-European plausible?
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Is the Indo-European language family made up?
Can Modern Hebrew be considered an Indo-European language?Is there any agglutinative Indo-European language?Discontinuous morphemes in Indo-European languagesArticles in Indo-European LanguagesEvolution of Definite Articles in Indo-European LanguagesWhat decides the language family of a language the most structure/grammar or the vocabulary?Are Semitic and Indo-European languages at all related?Which Indo European language best preserves the features of Proto Indo-European?Is English the only Indo-European language without gendered nouns?Is the existence of a mixed branch of Indo-European plausible?
Question Which European Languages are not Indo-European? on History.SE got this peculiar comment from user mathreadler:
None of them are. Indo-European is completely made-up language family by Britons who wanted India to have excuse to be part of Europe in some sense so they could use the massive population as power of social influence
Is it really so? Or if not, is there an account available online where a linguistic layman may rear about how this notion came about and how it was refuted?
indo-european history language-families
asked 8 hours ago
PavelPavel
1113
New contributor
Pavel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
Question Which European Languages are not Indo-European? on History.SE got this peculiar comment from user mathreadler:
None of them are. Indo-European is completely made-up language family by Britons who wanted India to have excuse to be part of Europe in some sense so they could use the massive population as power of social influence
Is it really so? Or if not, is there an account available online where a linguistic layman may rear about how this notion came about and how it was refuted?
indo-european history language-families
asked 8 hours ago
PavelPavel
1113
New contributor
Pavel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
4
See en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_studies#History for starters.
– Mark Beadles
8 hours ago
2
See also the Wikipedia article about William Jones to understand where this specific perception (might) originate from.
– Michaelyus
8 hours ago
6
This is political nonsense. Hindutva operatives are spreading a silly meme that says India was the source of all knowledge and language, because Sanskrit. They're on a par with the American know-nothings who talk about Noah's Ark with dinosaurs. Be careful; ignorance is dangerous.
– jlawler
6 hours ago
2
That's just nationalists projecting hard. Because they cannot comprehend that anyone would study history just to get close to the objective truth, when they meet a theory they don't like, in their mind it can only be because scholars of those other nation are distorting history to put forth the superiority of the wrong nation.
– jick
5 hours ago
add a comment |
Question Which European Languages are not Indo-European? on History.SE got this peculiar comment from user mathreadler:
None of them are. Indo-European is completely made-up language family by Britons who wanted India to have excuse to be part of Europe in some sense so they could use the massive population as power of social influence
Is it really so? Or if not, is there an account available online where a linguistic layman may rear about how this notion came about and how it was refuted?
indo-european history language-families
asked 8 hours ago
PavelPavel
1113
New contributor
Pavel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Question Which European Languages are not Indo-European? on History.SE got this peculiar comment from user mathreadler:
None of them are. Indo-European is completely made-up language family by Britons who wanted India to have excuse to be part of Europe in some sense so they could use the massive population as power of social influence
Is it really so? Or if not, is there an account available online where a linguistic layman may rear about how this notion came about and how it was refuted?
indo-european history language-families
indo-european history language-families
asked 8 hours ago
PavelPavel
1113
New contributor
Pavel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 8 hours ago
PavelPavel
1113
New contributor
Pavel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 8 hours ago
PavelPavel
1113
New contributor
Pavel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 8 hours ago
PavelPavel
1113
asked 8 hours ago
PavelPavel
1113
1113
New contributor
Pavel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Pavel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
4
See en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_studies#History for starters.
– Mark Beadles
8 hours ago
2
See also the Wikipedia article about William Jones to understand where this specific perception (might) originate from.
– Michaelyus
8 hours ago
6
This is political nonsense. Hindutva operatives are spreading a silly meme that says India was the source of all knowledge and language, because Sanskrit. They're on a par with the American know-nothings who talk about Noah's Ark with dinosaurs. Be careful; ignorance is dangerous.
– jlawler
6 hours ago
2
That's just nationalists projecting hard. Because they cannot comprehend that anyone would study history just to get close to the objective truth, when they meet a theory they don't like, in their mind it can only be because scholars of those other nation are distorting history to put forth the superiority of the wrong nation.
– jick
5 hours ago
add a comment |
4
See en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_studies#History for starters.
– Mark Beadles
8 hours ago
2
See also the Wikipedia article about William Jones to understand where this specific perception (might) originate from.
– Michaelyus
8 hours ago
6
This is political nonsense. Hindutva operatives are spreading a silly meme that says India was the source of all knowledge and language, because Sanskrit. They're on a par with the American know-nothings who talk about Noah's Ark with dinosaurs. Be careful; ignorance is dangerous.
– jlawler
6 hours ago
2
That's just nationalists projecting hard. Because they cannot comprehend that anyone would study history just to get close to the objective truth, when they meet a theory they don't like, in their mind it can only be because scholars of those other nation are distorting history to put forth the superiority of the wrong nation.
– jick
5 hours ago
4
4
See en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_studies#History for starters.
– Mark Beadles
8 hours ago
See en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_studies#History for starters.
– Mark Beadles
8 hours ago
2
2
See also the Wikipedia article about William Jones to understand where this specific perception (might) originate from.
– Michaelyus
8 hours ago
See also the Wikipedia article about William Jones to understand where this specific perception (might) originate from.
– Michaelyus
8 hours ago
6
6
This is political nonsense. Hindutva operatives are spreading a silly meme that says India was the source of all knowledge and language, because Sanskrit. They're on a par with the American know-nothings who talk about Noah's Ark with dinosaurs. Be careful; ignorance is dangerous.
– jlawler
6 hours ago
This is political nonsense. Hindutva operatives are spreading a silly meme that says India was the source of all knowledge and language, because Sanskrit. They're on a par with the American know-nothings who talk about Noah's Ark with dinosaurs. Be careful; ignorance is dangerous.
– jlawler
6 hours ago
2
2
That's just nationalists projecting hard. Because they cannot comprehend that anyone would study history just to get close to the objective truth, when they meet a theory they don't like, in their mind it can only be because scholars of those other nation are distorting history to put forth the superiority of the wrong nation.
– jick
5 hours ago
That's just nationalists projecting hard. Because they cannot comprehend that anyone would study history just to get close to the objective truth, when they meet a theory they don't like, in their mind it can only be because scholars of those other nation are distorting history to put forth the superiority of the wrong nation.
– jick
5 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
The claim cited in the quote is definitely wrong. The existence of language families is inferred from the data on extant and ancient languages, and there is a rigorous methodology used in this inferential process. So, it does not matter who looks at the data, experts from all over the world should come to an agreement on the existence and membership of a language family.
There are some fringe cases (e.g., very large and deep language families like Nostratic, or single languages with disputed family affiliations) but Indogermanic is a clear and fully accepted grouping.
Even a layman should be able to see the impressive correspondences layed out in this wikipedia article on Indo-European vocabulary. Contrast this with data from a non-Indogermanic language like Turkish, Japanese, or Tamil for an unrelated language.
answered 7 hours ago
jknappenjknappen
12k22954
add a comment |
The Indo-European family is completely made up, yes. But not for the reason cited in that comment. And the fact it's made up doesn't mean it's not real.
Sciences often posit the existence of things we can't actually directly observe, just because these things explain what we can observe. In Ancient Greece, some simple thought experiments showed that atoms must exist, even though you can't see an atom. (Later, we invented microscopes and other proofs, which allow us to observe them directly).
And Proto-Indoeuropean has been posited as an ancient language, not because any of us have ever heard or spoken it, but because it explains some of our observations of the languages of Europe and parts of Asia. (Later, perhaps someone will invent a time-machine of some sort that will allow us to observe Proto-Indoeuropean more directly.)
The Indo-European family is just the group of languages that we suppose have derived from Proto-Indoeuropean.
answered 8 hours ago
WilsonWilson
2,091520
4
PIE is reconstructed to be accurate. When you say "made up" it can refer to a product of imagination and not something based on real data and scientific observation.
– Midas
3 hours ago
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
The claim cited in the quote is definitely wrong. The existence of language families is inferred from the data on extant and ancient languages, and there is a rigorous methodology used in this inferential process. So, it does not matter who looks at the data, experts from all over the world should come to an agreement on the existence and membership of a language family.
There are some fringe cases (e.g., very large and deep language families like Nostratic, or single languages with disputed family affiliations) but Indogermanic is a clear and fully accepted grouping.
Even a layman should be able to see the impressive correspondences layed out in this wikipedia article on Indo-European vocabulary. Contrast this with data from a non-Indogermanic language like Turkish, Japanese, or Tamil for an unrelated language.
answered 7 hours ago
jknappenjknappen
12k22954
add a comment |
The claim cited in the quote is definitely wrong. The existence of language families is inferred from the data on extant and ancient languages, and there is a rigorous methodology used in this inferential process. So, it does not matter who looks at the data, experts from all over the world should come to an agreement on the existence and membership of a language family.
There are some fringe cases (e.g., very large and deep language families like Nostratic, or single languages with disputed family affiliations) but Indogermanic is a clear and fully accepted grouping.
Even a layman should be able to see the impressive correspondences layed out in this wikipedia article on Indo-European vocabulary. Contrast this with data from a non-Indogermanic language like Turkish, Japanese, or Tamil for an unrelated language.
answered 7 hours ago
jknappenjknappen
12k22954
add a comment |
The claim cited in the quote is definitely wrong. The existence of language families is inferred from the data on extant and ancient languages, and there is a rigorous methodology used in this inferential process. So, it does not matter who looks at the data, experts from all over the world should come to an agreement on the existence and membership of a language family.
There are some fringe cases (e.g., very large and deep language families like Nostratic, or single languages with disputed family affiliations) but Indogermanic is a clear and fully accepted grouping.
Even a layman should be able to see the impressive correspondences layed out in this wikipedia article on Indo-European vocabulary. Contrast this with data from a non-Indogermanic language like Turkish, Japanese, or Tamil for an unrelated language.
answered 7 hours ago
jknappenjknappen
12k22954
The claim cited in the quote is definitely wrong. The existence of language families is inferred from the data on extant and ancient languages, and there is a rigorous methodology used in this inferential process. So, it does not matter who looks at the data, experts from all over the world should come to an agreement on the existence and membership of a language family.
There are some fringe cases (e.g., very large and deep language families like Nostratic, or single languages with disputed family affiliations) but Indogermanic is a clear and fully accepted grouping.
Even a layman should be able to see the impressive correspondences layed out in this wikipedia article on Indo-European vocabulary. Contrast this with data from a non-Indogermanic language like Turkish, Japanese, or Tamil for an unrelated language.
answered 7 hours ago
jknappenjknappen
12k22954
edited 6 hours ago
answered 7 hours ago
jknappenjknappen
12k22954
answered 7 hours ago
jknappenjknappen
12k22954
answered 7 hours ago
jknappenjknappen
12k22954
12k22954
add a comment |
add a comment |
The Indo-European family is completely made up, yes. But not for the reason cited in that comment. And the fact it's made up doesn't mean it's not real.
Sciences often posit the existence of things we can't actually directly observe, just because these things explain what we can observe. In Ancient Greece, some simple thought experiments showed that atoms must exist, even though you can't see an atom. (Later, we invented microscopes and other proofs, which allow us to observe them directly).
And Proto-Indoeuropean has been posited as an ancient language, not because any of us have ever heard or spoken it, but because it explains some of our observations of the languages of Europe and parts of Asia. (Later, perhaps someone will invent a time-machine of some sort that will allow us to observe Proto-Indoeuropean more directly.)
The Indo-European family is just the group of languages that we suppose have derived from Proto-Indoeuropean.
answered 8 hours ago
WilsonWilson
2,091520
4
PIE is reconstructed to be accurate. When you say "made up" it can refer to a product of imagination and not something based on real data and scientific observation.
– Midas
3 hours ago
add a comment |
The Indo-European family is completely made up, yes. But not for the reason cited in that comment. And the fact it's made up doesn't mean it's not real.
Sciences often posit the existence of things we can't actually directly observe, just because these things explain what we can observe. In Ancient Greece, some simple thought experiments showed that atoms must exist, even though you can't see an atom. (Later, we invented microscopes and other proofs, which allow us to observe them directly).
And Proto-Indoeuropean has been posited as an ancient language, not because any of us have ever heard or spoken it, but because it explains some of our observations of the languages of Europe and parts of Asia. (Later, perhaps someone will invent a time-machine of some sort that will allow us to observe Proto-Indoeuropean more directly.)
The Indo-European family is just the group of languages that we suppose have derived from Proto-Indoeuropean.
answered 8 hours ago
WilsonWilson
2,091520
4
PIE is reconstructed to be accurate. When you say "made up" it can refer to a product of imagination and not something based on real data and scientific observation.
– Midas
3 hours ago
add a comment |
The Indo-European family is completely made up, yes. But not for the reason cited in that comment. And the fact it's made up doesn't mean it's not real.
Sciences often posit the existence of things we can't actually directly observe, just because these things explain what we can observe. In Ancient Greece, some simple thought experiments showed that atoms must exist, even though you can't see an atom. (Later, we invented microscopes and other proofs, which allow us to observe them directly).
And Proto-Indoeuropean has been posited as an ancient language, not because any of us have ever heard or spoken it, but because it explains some of our observations of the languages of Europe and parts of Asia. (Later, perhaps someone will invent a time-machine of some sort that will allow us to observe Proto-Indoeuropean more directly.)
The Indo-European family is just the group of languages that we suppose have derived from Proto-Indoeuropean.
answered 8 hours ago
WilsonWilson
2,091520
The Indo-European family is completely made up, yes. But not for the reason cited in that comment. And the fact it's made up doesn't mean it's not real.
Sciences often posit the existence of things we can't actually directly observe, just because these things explain what we can observe. In Ancient Greece, some simple thought experiments showed that atoms must exist, even though you can't see an atom. (Later, we invented microscopes and other proofs, which allow us to observe them directly).
And Proto-Indoeuropean has been posited as an ancient language, not because any of us have ever heard or spoken it, but because it explains some of our observations of the languages of Europe and parts of Asia. (Later, perhaps someone will invent a time-machine of some sort that will allow us to observe Proto-Indoeuropean more directly.)
The Indo-European family is just the group of languages that we suppose have derived from Proto-Indoeuropean.
answered 8 hours ago
WilsonWilson
2,091520
edited 8 hours ago
answered 8 hours ago
WilsonWilson
2,091520
answered 8 hours ago
WilsonWilson
2,091520
answered 8 hours ago
WilsonWilson
2,091520
2,091520
4
PIE is reconstructed to be accurate. When you say "made up" it can refer to a product of imagination and not something based on real data and scientific observation.
– Midas
3 hours ago
add a comment |
4
PIE is reconstructed to be accurate. When you say "made up" it can refer to a product of imagination and not something based on real data and scientific observation.
– Midas
3 hours ago
4
4
PIE is reconstructed to be accurate. When you say "made up" it can refer to a product of imagination and not something based on real data and scientific observation.
– Midas
3 hours ago
PIE is reconstructed to be accurate. When you say "made up" it can refer to a product of imagination and not something based on real data and scientific observation.
– Midas
3 hours ago
add a comment |
Pavel is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Pavel is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Pavel is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Pavel is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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4
See en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_studies#History for starters.
– Mark Beadles
8 hours ago
2
See also the Wikipedia article about William Jones to understand where this specific perception (might) originate from.
– Michaelyus
8 hours ago
6
This is political nonsense. Hindutva operatives are spreading a silly meme that says India was the source of all knowledge and language, because Sanskrit. They're on a par with the American know-nothings who talk about Noah's Ark with dinosaurs. Be careful; ignorance is dangerous.
– jlawler
6 hours ago
2
That's just nationalists projecting hard. Because they cannot comprehend that anyone would study history just to get close to the objective truth, when they meet a theory they don't like, in their mind it can only be because scholars of those other nation are distorting history to put forth the superiority of the wrong nation.
– jick
5 hours ago