Fitch Proof QuestionConditional disjunction equivalence proof using FItchFitch Proof - Logic LPL 13.11Fitch Proof - LPL Exercise 8.17fitch proof chapter 13 exercise 13.49Use the Fitch system to prove the tautology (p ∨ ¬p)LPL ( language proof and logic) - FITCH - 14.12Seminal, accessible work on defeasible reasoningIs it possible to define argument validity as a formula?Fitch Biconditional Proof Help?Fitch Proof by Contradiction help

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Fitch Proof Question


Conditional disjunction equivalence proof using FItchFitch Proof - Logic LPL 13.11Fitch Proof - LPL Exercise 8.17fitch proof chapter 13 exercise 13.49Use the Fitch system to prove the tautology (p ∨ ¬p)LPL ( language proof and logic) - FITCH - 14.12Seminal, accessible work on defeasible reasoningIs it possible to define argument validity as a formula?Fitch Biconditional Proof Help?Fitch Proof by Contradiction help













1















I'm having trouble with a proof and I'm not sure if it's valid or not. If it appears to be invalid, we are supposed to assign names to the letters in the proof and check it in a World, but when I do it still checks out.



When I try to prove it in Fitch, I get all the way to the bottom, with (Q^R) as the last step of the subproof and I'm trying to apply -->Intro to join
(NOT)P --> (Q ^ R) but it's not checking out because it says that it needs a support step to be cited.




P --> Q Premise
R ^ S Premise
------------------
(NOT)P --> (Q ^ R) Goal









share|improve this question









New contributor




fitch-is-killing-me is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




















  • Nope, that is not valid. Are you missing a 'not' before that first P?

    – Graham Kemp
    2 hours ago











  • Is it not valid because there's no (NOT)P in the premises? Since it's not known? No, it's not missing. The first premise is P --> Q.

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    2 hours ago












  • Then you cannot conclude ¬P → (Q ˄ R) from those premises, although you may conclude P → (Q ˄ R)

    – Graham Kemp
    2 hours ago















1















I'm having trouble with a proof and I'm not sure if it's valid or not. If it appears to be invalid, we are supposed to assign names to the letters in the proof and check it in a World, but when I do it still checks out.



When I try to prove it in Fitch, I get all the way to the bottom, with (Q^R) as the last step of the subproof and I'm trying to apply -->Intro to join
(NOT)P --> (Q ^ R) but it's not checking out because it says that it needs a support step to be cited.




P --> Q Premise
R ^ S Premise
------------------
(NOT)P --> (Q ^ R) Goal









share|improve this question









New contributor




fitch-is-killing-me is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




















  • Nope, that is not valid. Are you missing a 'not' before that first P?

    – Graham Kemp
    2 hours ago











  • Is it not valid because there's no (NOT)P in the premises? Since it's not known? No, it's not missing. The first premise is P --> Q.

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    2 hours ago












  • Then you cannot conclude ¬P → (Q ˄ R) from those premises, although you may conclude P → (Q ˄ R)

    – Graham Kemp
    2 hours ago













1












1








1








I'm having trouble with a proof and I'm not sure if it's valid or not. If it appears to be invalid, we are supposed to assign names to the letters in the proof and check it in a World, but when I do it still checks out.



When I try to prove it in Fitch, I get all the way to the bottom, with (Q^R) as the last step of the subproof and I'm trying to apply -->Intro to join
(NOT)P --> (Q ^ R) but it's not checking out because it says that it needs a support step to be cited.




P --> Q Premise
R ^ S Premise
------------------
(NOT)P --> (Q ^ R) Goal









share|improve this question









New contributor




fitch-is-killing-me is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












I'm having trouble with a proof and I'm not sure if it's valid or not. If it appears to be invalid, we are supposed to assign names to the letters in the proof and check it in a World, but when I do it still checks out.



When I try to prove it in Fitch, I get all the way to the bottom, with (Q^R) as the last step of the subproof and I'm trying to apply -->Intro to join
(NOT)P --> (Q ^ R) but it's not checking out because it says that it needs a support step to be cited.




P --> Q Premise
R ^ S Premise
------------------
(NOT)P --> (Q ^ R) Goal






logic proof language fitch






share|improve this question









New contributor




fitch-is-killing-me is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question









New contributor




fitch-is-killing-me is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 1 hour ago









Frank Hubeny

11k51559




11k51559






New contributor




fitch-is-killing-me is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked 2 hours ago









fitch-is-killing-mefitch-is-killing-me

61




61




New contributor




fitch-is-killing-me is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor





fitch-is-killing-me is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






fitch-is-killing-me is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • Nope, that is not valid. Are you missing a 'not' before that first P?

    – Graham Kemp
    2 hours ago











  • Is it not valid because there's no (NOT)P in the premises? Since it's not known? No, it's not missing. The first premise is P --> Q.

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    2 hours ago












  • Then you cannot conclude ¬P → (Q ˄ R) from those premises, although you may conclude P → (Q ˄ R)

    – Graham Kemp
    2 hours ago

















  • Nope, that is not valid. Are you missing a 'not' before that first P?

    – Graham Kemp
    2 hours ago











  • Is it not valid because there's no (NOT)P in the premises? Since it's not known? No, it's not missing. The first premise is P --> Q.

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    2 hours ago












  • Then you cannot conclude ¬P → (Q ˄ R) from those premises, although you may conclude P → (Q ˄ R)

    – Graham Kemp
    2 hours ago
















Nope, that is not valid. Are you missing a 'not' before that first P?

– Graham Kemp
2 hours ago





Nope, that is not valid. Are you missing a 'not' before that first P?

– Graham Kemp
2 hours ago













Is it not valid because there's no (NOT)P in the premises? Since it's not known? No, it's not missing. The first premise is P --> Q.

– fitch-is-killing-me
2 hours ago






Is it not valid because there's no (NOT)P in the premises? Since it's not known? No, it's not missing. The first premise is P --> Q.

– fitch-is-killing-me
2 hours ago














Then you cannot conclude ¬P → (Q ˄ R) from those premises, although you may conclude P → (Q ˄ R)

– Graham Kemp
2 hours ago





Then you cannot conclude ¬P → (Q ˄ R) from those premises, although you may conclude P → (Q ˄ R)

– Graham Kemp
2 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2














P → Q, R ˄ S |- ¬P → (Q ˄ R) is not syntactically valid.



An assumption of ¬P will not allow you to eliminate the conditional in P → Q to derive Q .



Is there a typo?



P → Q, R ˄ S |- P → (Q ˄ R) is valid.



 1| P → Q
2|_ R ˄ S
3| R ˄E, 2
4| |_ P
5| | Q →E, 1,4
6| | Q ˄ R ˄I, 3,5
7| P → (Q ˄ R) →I, 4-6



For an argument to be semantically valid, the conclusion must be demonstrably true in all interpretations where the premises are -- it is not enough to find just one. A proof is semantically invalid when the exists some interpretation where all the premises are true, but the conclusion is false. One such counter example is enough to disprove an argument.



In the interpretation of P=f,Q=f, R=t, S=t, the premises P → Q, R ˄ S, are both true, but ¬P → (Q ˄ R) is false.






share|improve this answer

























  • No, there's no typo. I imagined that this proof wasn't valid simply because I coulnd't conclude (NOT)P from anywhere. So, when I replace the letters with cube(a) , cube(b), why is it showing, in the world, that the proof is valid? Should I choose names that I know will prove it's invalid?

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    1 hour ago


















1














By using a truth table generator one can show that one of the set of valuations for the sentence letters leads to the result being false.



To see this, use this input ((P=>Q)&&(R&&S))=>(~P=>(Q&&R)) in the Stanford Truth Table Tool. When P and Q are false and R and S are true then the conditional with the conjunction of the premises as antecedent and the goal as consequent is false.



This would mean that one could not derive the result.






share|improve this answer























  • That makes sense. So the reason that the proof is invalid, is because out of all the results, there's only 1 that is false? In a valid proof, they should all be true?

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    1 hour ago











  • That's right. If there were only T values then the statement would be a tautology based on the truth table and a derivation or proof could be found that would be valid.

    – Frank Hubeny
    1 hour ago











Your Answer








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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2














P → Q, R ˄ S |- ¬P → (Q ˄ R) is not syntactically valid.



An assumption of ¬P will not allow you to eliminate the conditional in P → Q to derive Q .



Is there a typo?



P → Q, R ˄ S |- P → (Q ˄ R) is valid.



 1| P → Q
2|_ R ˄ S
3| R ˄E, 2
4| |_ P
5| | Q →E, 1,4
6| | Q ˄ R ˄I, 3,5
7| P → (Q ˄ R) →I, 4-6



For an argument to be semantically valid, the conclusion must be demonstrably true in all interpretations where the premises are -- it is not enough to find just one. A proof is semantically invalid when the exists some interpretation where all the premises are true, but the conclusion is false. One such counter example is enough to disprove an argument.



In the interpretation of P=f,Q=f, R=t, S=t, the premises P → Q, R ˄ S, are both true, but ¬P → (Q ˄ R) is false.






share|improve this answer

























  • No, there's no typo. I imagined that this proof wasn't valid simply because I coulnd't conclude (NOT)P from anywhere. So, when I replace the letters with cube(a) , cube(b), why is it showing, in the world, that the proof is valid? Should I choose names that I know will prove it's invalid?

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    1 hour ago















2














P → Q, R ˄ S |- ¬P → (Q ˄ R) is not syntactically valid.



An assumption of ¬P will not allow you to eliminate the conditional in P → Q to derive Q .



Is there a typo?



P → Q, R ˄ S |- P → (Q ˄ R) is valid.



 1| P → Q
2|_ R ˄ S
3| R ˄E, 2
4| |_ P
5| | Q →E, 1,4
6| | Q ˄ R ˄I, 3,5
7| P → (Q ˄ R) →I, 4-6



For an argument to be semantically valid, the conclusion must be demonstrably true in all interpretations where the premises are -- it is not enough to find just one. A proof is semantically invalid when the exists some interpretation where all the premises are true, but the conclusion is false. One such counter example is enough to disprove an argument.



In the interpretation of P=f,Q=f, R=t, S=t, the premises P → Q, R ˄ S, are both true, but ¬P → (Q ˄ R) is false.






share|improve this answer

























  • No, there's no typo. I imagined that this proof wasn't valid simply because I coulnd't conclude (NOT)P from anywhere. So, when I replace the letters with cube(a) , cube(b), why is it showing, in the world, that the proof is valid? Should I choose names that I know will prove it's invalid?

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    1 hour ago













2












2








2







P → Q, R ˄ S |- ¬P → (Q ˄ R) is not syntactically valid.



An assumption of ¬P will not allow you to eliminate the conditional in P → Q to derive Q .



Is there a typo?



P → Q, R ˄ S |- P → (Q ˄ R) is valid.



 1| P → Q
2|_ R ˄ S
3| R ˄E, 2
4| |_ P
5| | Q →E, 1,4
6| | Q ˄ R ˄I, 3,5
7| P → (Q ˄ R) →I, 4-6



For an argument to be semantically valid, the conclusion must be demonstrably true in all interpretations where the premises are -- it is not enough to find just one. A proof is semantically invalid when the exists some interpretation where all the premises are true, but the conclusion is false. One such counter example is enough to disprove an argument.



In the interpretation of P=f,Q=f, R=t, S=t, the premises P → Q, R ˄ S, are both true, but ¬P → (Q ˄ R) is false.






share|improve this answer















P → Q, R ˄ S |- ¬P → (Q ˄ R) is not syntactically valid.



An assumption of ¬P will not allow you to eliminate the conditional in P → Q to derive Q .



Is there a typo?



P → Q, R ˄ S |- P → (Q ˄ R) is valid.



 1| P → Q
2|_ R ˄ S
3| R ˄E, 2
4| |_ P
5| | Q →E, 1,4
6| | Q ˄ R ˄I, 3,5
7| P → (Q ˄ R) →I, 4-6



For an argument to be semantically valid, the conclusion must be demonstrably true in all interpretations where the premises are -- it is not enough to find just one. A proof is semantically invalid when the exists some interpretation where all the premises are true, but the conclusion is false. One such counter example is enough to disprove an argument.



In the interpretation of P=f,Q=f, R=t, S=t, the premises P → Q, R ˄ S, are both true, but ¬P → (Q ˄ R) is false.







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 1 hour ago

























answered 2 hours ago









Graham KempGraham Kemp

1,10919




1,10919












  • No, there's no typo. I imagined that this proof wasn't valid simply because I coulnd't conclude (NOT)P from anywhere. So, when I replace the letters with cube(a) , cube(b), why is it showing, in the world, that the proof is valid? Should I choose names that I know will prove it's invalid?

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    1 hour ago

















  • No, there's no typo. I imagined that this proof wasn't valid simply because I coulnd't conclude (NOT)P from anywhere. So, when I replace the letters with cube(a) , cube(b), why is it showing, in the world, that the proof is valid? Should I choose names that I know will prove it's invalid?

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    1 hour ago
















No, there's no typo. I imagined that this proof wasn't valid simply because I coulnd't conclude (NOT)P from anywhere. So, when I replace the letters with cube(a) , cube(b), why is it showing, in the world, that the proof is valid? Should I choose names that I know will prove it's invalid?

– fitch-is-killing-me
1 hour ago





No, there's no typo. I imagined that this proof wasn't valid simply because I coulnd't conclude (NOT)P from anywhere. So, when I replace the letters with cube(a) , cube(b), why is it showing, in the world, that the proof is valid? Should I choose names that I know will prove it's invalid?

– fitch-is-killing-me
1 hour ago











1














By using a truth table generator one can show that one of the set of valuations for the sentence letters leads to the result being false.



To see this, use this input ((P=>Q)&&(R&&S))=>(~P=>(Q&&R)) in the Stanford Truth Table Tool. When P and Q are false and R and S are true then the conditional with the conjunction of the premises as antecedent and the goal as consequent is false.



This would mean that one could not derive the result.






share|improve this answer























  • That makes sense. So the reason that the proof is invalid, is because out of all the results, there's only 1 that is false? In a valid proof, they should all be true?

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    1 hour ago











  • That's right. If there were only T values then the statement would be a tautology based on the truth table and a derivation or proof could be found that would be valid.

    – Frank Hubeny
    1 hour ago















1














By using a truth table generator one can show that one of the set of valuations for the sentence letters leads to the result being false.



To see this, use this input ((P=>Q)&&(R&&S))=>(~P=>(Q&&R)) in the Stanford Truth Table Tool. When P and Q are false and R and S are true then the conditional with the conjunction of the premises as antecedent and the goal as consequent is false.



This would mean that one could not derive the result.






share|improve this answer























  • That makes sense. So the reason that the proof is invalid, is because out of all the results, there's only 1 that is false? In a valid proof, they should all be true?

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    1 hour ago











  • That's right. If there were only T values then the statement would be a tautology based on the truth table and a derivation or proof could be found that would be valid.

    – Frank Hubeny
    1 hour ago













1












1








1







By using a truth table generator one can show that one of the set of valuations for the sentence letters leads to the result being false.



To see this, use this input ((P=>Q)&&(R&&S))=>(~P=>(Q&&R)) in the Stanford Truth Table Tool. When P and Q are false and R and S are true then the conditional with the conjunction of the premises as antecedent and the goal as consequent is false.



This would mean that one could not derive the result.






share|improve this answer













By using a truth table generator one can show that one of the set of valuations for the sentence letters leads to the result being false.



To see this, use this input ((P=>Q)&&(R&&S))=>(~P=>(Q&&R)) in the Stanford Truth Table Tool. When P and Q are false and R and S are true then the conditional with the conjunction of the premises as antecedent and the goal as consequent is false.



This would mean that one could not derive the result.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 1 hour ago









Frank HubenyFrank Hubeny

11k51559




11k51559












  • That makes sense. So the reason that the proof is invalid, is because out of all the results, there's only 1 that is false? In a valid proof, they should all be true?

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    1 hour ago











  • That's right. If there were only T values then the statement would be a tautology based on the truth table and a derivation or proof could be found that would be valid.

    – Frank Hubeny
    1 hour ago

















  • That makes sense. So the reason that the proof is invalid, is because out of all the results, there's only 1 that is false? In a valid proof, they should all be true?

    – fitch-is-killing-me
    1 hour ago











  • That's right. If there were only T values then the statement would be a tautology based on the truth table and a derivation or proof could be found that would be valid.

    – Frank Hubeny
    1 hour ago
















That makes sense. So the reason that the proof is invalid, is because out of all the results, there's only 1 that is false? In a valid proof, they should all be true?

– fitch-is-killing-me
1 hour ago





That makes sense. So the reason that the proof is invalid, is because out of all the results, there's only 1 that is false? In a valid proof, they should all be true?

– fitch-is-killing-me
1 hour ago













That's right. If there were only T values then the statement would be a tautology based on the truth table and a derivation or proof could be found that would be valid.

– Frank Hubeny
1 hour ago





That's right. If there were only T values then the statement would be a tautology based on the truth table and a derivation or proof could be found that would be valid.

– Frank Hubeny
1 hour ago










fitch-is-killing-me is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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