Prove that the limit exists or does not existHow to Prove the Root Test For SeriesProving that $sum fracn^n+1/n(n+1/n)^n$ divergesShow that there exists a real function $f$ such that $xto a, |f(x)|to |L|$ but the limit of $f(x)$ does not exist.Convergence/Divergence of the series $sumlimits_n=1^inftytan(1/n)$Prove the series $sum_n=1^∞ (-1)^n(n)/(n+2)$ divergesL'Hopital rule to show limit does not existDoes the following limit exist? $lim_rto1sum_n=0^infty a_nr^n$Limit of the composistion of two functions when the limit of $f$ does not exist?Does the series $sum_n=1^infty fracnsqrt[3]8n^5-1$ Converge?If $lim textsup_ntoinftyX_n≠lim textinf_ntoinftyX_n$, can we say “limit doesn't exist”?
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Prove that the limit exists or does not exist
How to Prove the Root Test For SeriesProving that $sum fracn^n+1/n(n+1/n)^n$ divergesShow that there exists a real function $f$ such that $xto a, |f(x)|to |L|$ but the limit of $f(x)$ does not exist.Convergence/Divergence of the series $sumlimits_n=1^inftytan(1/n)$Prove the series $sum_n=1^∞ (-1)^n(n)/(n+2)$ divergesL'Hopital rule to show limit does not existDoes the following limit exist? $lim_rto1sum_n=0^infty a_nr^n$Limit of the composistion of two functions when the limit of $f$ does not exist?Does the series $sum_n=1^infty fracnsqrt[3]8n^5-1$ Converge?If $lim textsup_ntoinftyX_n≠lim textinf_ntoinftyX_n$, can we say “limit doesn't exist”?
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Prove that the limit exists or does not exist:
$$ lim_Nto infty sum_n=1^N frac1phi(n), $$
where $phi(n)$ is the Euler Totient function.
The ratio test was inconclusive.
I'm fairly sure the p-series test says this series diverges because $p=1$ but then again in this case I'm not sure how to deal with a function in the place where $n$ normally is.
calculus sequences-and-series limits limits-without-lhopital totient-function
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Prove that the limit exists or does not exist:
$$ lim_Nto infty sum_n=1^N frac1phi(n), $$
where $phi(n)$ is the Euler Totient function.
The ratio test was inconclusive.
I'm fairly sure the p-series test says this series diverges because $p=1$ but then again in this case I'm not sure how to deal with a function in the place where $n$ normally is.
calculus sequences-and-series limits limits-without-lhopital totient-function
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2
$begingroup$
$phi(n) leq n$ might help.
$endgroup$
– Jo'
2 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Prove that the limit exists or does not exist:
$$ lim_Nto infty sum_n=1^N frac1phi(n), $$
where $phi(n)$ is the Euler Totient function.
The ratio test was inconclusive.
I'm fairly sure the p-series test says this series diverges because $p=1$ but then again in this case I'm not sure how to deal with a function in the place where $n$ normally is.
calculus sequences-and-series limits limits-without-lhopital totient-function
$endgroup$
Prove that the limit exists or does not exist:
$$ lim_Nto infty sum_n=1^N frac1phi(n), $$
where $phi(n)$ is the Euler Totient function.
The ratio test was inconclusive.
I'm fairly sure the p-series test says this series diverges because $p=1$ but then again in this case I'm not sure how to deal with a function in the place where $n$ normally is.
calculus sequences-and-series limits limits-without-lhopital totient-function
calculus sequences-and-series limits limits-without-lhopital totient-function
asked 2 hours ago
UltradarkUltradark
3891518
3891518
2
$begingroup$
$phi(n) leq n$ might help.
$endgroup$
– Jo'
2 hours ago
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
$phi(n) leq n$ might help.
$endgroup$
– Jo'
2 hours ago
2
2
$begingroup$
$phi(n) leq n$ might help.
$endgroup$
– Jo'
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
$phi(n) leq n$ might help.
$endgroup$
– Jo'
2 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Since $varphi(n)leq n$ it follows that $$frac1varphi(n)geq frac1n$$ and hence $sum frac1varphi(n)=infty$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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A way of proof is the following:
$dfrac1p-1gt dfrac1p$ and $phi(p)=p-1$ then $$sum_n=1^N dfrac1phi(n)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1phi(p)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1pto infty$$ (because of the Euler's proof of the infinity of primes).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
$endgroup$
– N. S.
1 hour ago
1
$begingroup$
He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
1 hour ago
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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active
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$begingroup$
Since $varphi(n)leq n$ it follows that $$frac1varphi(n)geq frac1n$$ and hence $sum frac1varphi(n)=infty$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $varphi(n)leq n$ it follows that $$frac1varphi(n)geq frac1n$$ and hence $sum frac1varphi(n)=infty$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $varphi(n)leq n$ it follows that $$frac1varphi(n)geq frac1n$$ and hence $sum frac1varphi(n)=infty$.
$endgroup$
Since $varphi(n)leq n$ it follows that $$frac1varphi(n)geq frac1n$$ and hence $sum frac1varphi(n)=infty$.
answered 2 hours ago
Foobaz JohnFoobaz John
23.6k41553
23.6k41553
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A way of proof is the following:
$dfrac1p-1gt dfrac1p$ and $phi(p)=p-1$ then $$sum_n=1^N dfrac1phi(n)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1phi(p)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1pto infty$$ (because of the Euler's proof of the infinity of primes).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
$endgroup$
– N. S.
1 hour ago
1
$begingroup$
He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A way of proof is the following:
$dfrac1p-1gt dfrac1p$ and $phi(p)=p-1$ then $$sum_n=1^N dfrac1phi(n)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1phi(p)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1pto infty$$ (because of the Euler's proof of the infinity of primes).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
$endgroup$
– N. S.
1 hour ago
1
$begingroup$
He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A way of proof is the following:
$dfrac1p-1gt dfrac1p$ and $phi(p)=p-1$ then $$sum_n=1^N dfrac1phi(n)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1phi(p)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1pto infty$$ (because of the Euler's proof of the infinity of primes).
$endgroup$
A way of proof is the following:
$dfrac1p-1gt dfrac1p$ and $phi(p)=p-1$ then $$sum_n=1^N dfrac1phi(n)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1phi(p)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1pto infty$$ (because of the Euler's proof of the infinity of primes).
answered 1 hour ago
PiquitoPiquito
18.1k31540
18.1k31540
$begingroup$
Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
$endgroup$
– N. S.
1 hour ago
1
$begingroup$
He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
$endgroup$
– N. S.
1 hour ago
1
$begingroup$
He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
$endgroup$
– N. S.
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
$endgroup$
– N. S.
1 hour ago
1
1
$begingroup$
He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
1 hour ago
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
$phi(n) leq n$ might help.
$endgroup$
– Jo'
2 hours ago