Prove that the limit exists or does not existHow to Prove the Root Test For SeriesProving that $sum fracn^n+1/n(n+1/n)^n$ divergesShow that there exists a real function $f$ such that $xto a, |f(x)|to |L|$ but the limit of $f(x)$ does not exist.Convergence/Divergence of the series $sumlimits_n=1^inftytan(1/n)$Prove the series $sum_n=1^∞ (-1)^n(n)/(n+2)$ divergesL'Hopital rule to show limit does not existDoes the following limit exist? $lim_rto1sum_n=0^infty a_nr^n$Limit of the composistion of two functions when the limit of $f$ does not exist?Does the series $sum_n=1^infty fracnsqrt[3]8n^5-1$ Converge?If $lim textsup_ntoinftyX_n≠lim textinf_ntoinftyX_n$, can we say “limit doesn't exist”?

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Prove that the limit exists or does not exist


How to Prove the Root Test For SeriesProving that $sum fracn^n+1/n(n+1/n)^n$ divergesShow that there exists a real function $f$ such that $xto a, |f(x)|to |L|$ but the limit of $f(x)$ does not exist.Convergence/Divergence of the series $sumlimits_n=1^inftytan(1/n)$Prove the series $sum_n=1^∞ (-1)^n(n)/(n+2)$ divergesL'Hopital rule to show limit does not existDoes the following limit exist? $lim_rto1sum_n=0^infty a_nr^n$Limit of the composistion of two functions when the limit of $f$ does not exist?Does the series $sum_n=1^infty fracnsqrt[3]8n^5-1$ Converge?If $lim textsup_ntoinftyX_n≠lim textinf_ntoinftyX_n$, can we say “limit doesn't exist”?













2












$begingroup$


Prove that the limit exists or does not exist:



$$ lim_Nto infty sum_n=1^N frac1phi(n), $$



where $phi(n)$ is the Euler Totient function.



The ratio test was inconclusive.



I'm fairly sure the p-series test says this series diverges because $p=1$ but then again in this case I'm not sure how to deal with a function in the place where $n$ normally is.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $phi(n) leq n$ might help.
    $endgroup$
    – Jo'
    2 hours ago















2












$begingroup$


Prove that the limit exists or does not exist:



$$ lim_Nto infty sum_n=1^N frac1phi(n), $$



where $phi(n)$ is the Euler Totient function.



The ratio test was inconclusive.



I'm fairly sure the p-series test says this series diverges because $p=1$ but then again in this case I'm not sure how to deal with a function in the place where $n$ normally is.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $phi(n) leq n$ might help.
    $endgroup$
    – Jo'
    2 hours ago













2












2








2





$begingroup$


Prove that the limit exists or does not exist:



$$ lim_Nto infty sum_n=1^N frac1phi(n), $$



where $phi(n)$ is the Euler Totient function.



The ratio test was inconclusive.



I'm fairly sure the p-series test says this series diverges because $p=1$ but then again in this case I'm not sure how to deal with a function in the place where $n$ normally is.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Prove that the limit exists or does not exist:



$$ lim_Nto infty sum_n=1^N frac1phi(n), $$



where $phi(n)$ is the Euler Totient function.



The ratio test was inconclusive.



I'm fairly sure the p-series test says this series diverges because $p=1$ but then again in this case I'm not sure how to deal with a function in the place where $n$ normally is.







calculus sequences-and-series limits limits-without-lhopital totient-function






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 2 hours ago









UltradarkUltradark

3891518




3891518







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $phi(n) leq n$ might help.
    $endgroup$
    – Jo'
    2 hours ago












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $phi(n) leq n$ might help.
    $endgroup$
    – Jo'
    2 hours ago







2




2




$begingroup$
$phi(n) leq n$ might help.
$endgroup$
– Jo'
2 hours ago




$begingroup$
$phi(n) leq n$ might help.
$endgroup$
– Jo'
2 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

Since $varphi(n)leq n$ it follows that $$frac1varphi(n)geq frac1n$$ and hence $sum frac1varphi(n)=infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    3












    $begingroup$

    A way of proof is the following:



    $dfrac1p-1gt dfrac1p$ and $phi(p)=p-1$ then $$sum_n=1^N dfrac1phi(n)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1phi(p)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1pto infty$$ (because of the Euler's proof of the infinity of primes).






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
      $endgroup$
      – N. S.
      1 hour ago






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
      $endgroup$
      – Joel Cohen
      1 hour ago












    Your Answer








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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5












    $begingroup$

    Since $varphi(n)leq n$ it follows that $$frac1varphi(n)geq frac1n$$ and hence $sum frac1varphi(n)=infty$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      5












      $begingroup$

      Since $varphi(n)leq n$ it follows that $$frac1varphi(n)geq frac1n$$ and hence $sum frac1varphi(n)=infty$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        5












        5








        5





        $begingroup$

        Since $varphi(n)leq n$ it follows that $$frac1varphi(n)geq frac1n$$ and hence $sum frac1varphi(n)=infty$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Since $varphi(n)leq n$ it follows that $$frac1varphi(n)geq frac1n$$ and hence $sum frac1varphi(n)=infty$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 2 hours ago









        Foobaz JohnFoobaz John

        23.6k41553




        23.6k41553





















            3












            $begingroup$

            A way of proof is the following:



            $dfrac1p-1gt dfrac1p$ and $phi(p)=p-1$ then $$sum_n=1^N dfrac1phi(n)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1phi(p)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1pto infty$$ (because of the Euler's proof of the infinity of primes).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
              $endgroup$
              – N. S.
              1 hour ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
              $endgroup$
              – Joel Cohen
              1 hour ago
















            3












            $begingroup$

            A way of proof is the following:



            $dfrac1p-1gt dfrac1p$ and $phi(p)=p-1$ then $$sum_n=1^N dfrac1phi(n)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1phi(p)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1pto infty$$ (because of the Euler's proof of the infinity of primes).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
              $endgroup$
              – N. S.
              1 hour ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
              $endgroup$
              – Joel Cohen
              1 hour ago














            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            A way of proof is the following:



            $dfrac1p-1gt dfrac1p$ and $phi(p)=p-1$ then $$sum_n=1^N dfrac1phi(n)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1phi(p)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1pto infty$$ (because of the Euler's proof of the infinity of primes).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            A way of proof is the following:



            $dfrac1p-1gt dfrac1p$ and $phi(p)=p-1$ then $$sum_n=1^N dfrac1phi(n)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1phi(p)gtsum_ptext prime^N dfrac1pto infty$$ (because of the Euler's proof of the infinity of primes).







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 1 hour ago









            PiquitoPiquito

            18.1k31540




            18.1k31540











            • $begingroup$
              Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
              $endgroup$
              – N. S.
              1 hour ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
              $endgroup$
              – Joel Cohen
              1 hour ago

















            • $begingroup$
              Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
              $endgroup$
              – N. S.
              1 hour ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
              $endgroup$
              – Joel Cohen
              1 hour ago
















            $begingroup$
            Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
            $endgroup$
            – N. S.
            1 hour ago




            $begingroup$
            Infinity of primes is not enough to conclude that the last sum diverges. There are infinitely many numbers of the form $n^2$ or $2^n$ but those sums converge.... You probably need the Prime number theorem for the last step, which is pretty heavy.
            $endgroup$
            – N. S.
            1 hour ago




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
            $endgroup$
            – Joel Cohen
            1 hour ago





            $begingroup$
            He uses a stronger version : it's not just the infinity of primes itself, but Euler's proof of that result, which actually shows this sum diverges (so there cannot be a finite number of terms). The proof is not the full on Prime Number Theorem (you need Euler's product formula, and the fact that $lim_x to 1^+ zeta(x) = +infty$).
            $endgroup$
            – Joel Cohen
            1 hour ago


















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