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Does the 7th major scale note resolve more strongly to the lower tonic (note 1) than the higher tonic (note 8)?

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Does the 7th major scale note resolve more strongly to the lower tonic (note 1) than the higher tonic (note 8)?


Is raising the flat 7th scale-degree of a mode to become a leading tone to the final still modal?Why does a melodic half step resolve on the higher note?What does a major-7 chord resolve/lead to?Why aren't unusual leading tone cadences more common?How do I go about naming/understanding the second chord in corcovadoIs Cmaj7 in the C major scale different than the Cmaj7 in the C Dorian scale?Tension and TonicHow to name more than seven scale tones?Does the dissonance of scale notes, to the tonic, follow a pattern of ascending fifths?A standard term for “Dominant seventh resolves by P4th up motion”













2















Music theory articles say:



1) The 1,3,5 are 'stable' and the 2,4,6,7 are 'unstable'.



2)
The 2 most likely resolves down to the 1.
The 4 most likely resolves down to the 3.
The 6 most likely resolves down to the 5.
But the 7 resolves up to the 1.



The question is, does the 7 actually, technically, resolve more strongly to the 'lower' tonic (1) than the 'higher' tonic but compositionally it sounds better to resolve to the upper tonic?



For example, ignoring the 7, if C4 (middle C) resolves more strongly to C4 than C5 then it would stand to reason that B actually resolves better to the lower tonic but it's always listed as going to the higher tonic because it's more compositionally useful.










share|improve this question



















  • 2





    Are you asking about whether C4 sounds stronger going to C3 or C5, or are you asking if B4 sounds stronger going to C4 or C5? I thought you were asking the latter, since B is the seventh scale degree of the C major scale that would normally resolve to a C of some sort. C4 to C3 (or C5) is not what I would call a "resolution".

    – Todd Wilcox
    2 hours ago












  • The question is phrased in a confusing way. especially in that the last paragraph doesn't seem to be about the same as the rest of it.

    – Tim
    1 hour ago











  • I am asking why it goes up instead of down. It it solely for the sake of composition? I offer the example of C4 ... does it resolve the same higher or lower? If not then the B also resolves (best) to the lower C, in of itself.

    – Randy Zeitman
    1 hour ago






  • 1





    I still don’t understand. A C does not “resolve” to another C because there is no tension between two Cs. There is tension between a B and a C. Also in the title you ask about the 7th scale degree. That makes sense. In the key of C the sevent scale degree is B. So talking about the seventh or B resolving makes sense. Talking about the eighth scale degree or the first scale degree (C) resolving doesn’t make sense.

    – Todd Wilcox
    57 mins ago












  • Ok, does one sound 'better' ... why would C4 to C3 sound the same as C4 to C5? I tried to edit the question. The C 'resolving' is an example to show that up/down does matter, just not what is the adjacent note.

    – Randy Zeitman
    42 mins ago















2















Music theory articles say:



1) The 1,3,5 are 'stable' and the 2,4,6,7 are 'unstable'.



2)
The 2 most likely resolves down to the 1.
The 4 most likely resolves down to the 3.
The 6 most likely resolves down to the 5.
But the 7 resolves up to the 1.



The question is, does the 7 actually, technically, resolve more strongly to the 'lower' tonic (1) than the 'higher' tonic but compositionally it sounds better to resolve to the upper tonic?



For example, ignoring the 7, if C4 (middle C) resolves more strongly to C4 than C5 then it would stand to reason that B actually resolves better to the lower tonic but it's always listed as going to the higher tonic because it's more compositionally useful.










share|improve this question



















  • 2





    Are you asking about whether C4 sounds stronger going to C3 or C5, or are you asking if B4 sounds stronger going to C4 or C5? I thought you were asking the latter, since B is the seventh scale degree of the C major scale that would normally resolve to a C of some sort. C4 to C3 (or C5) is not what I would call a "resolution".

    – Todd Wilcox
    2 hours ago












  • The question is phrased in a confusing way. especially in that the last paragraph doesn't seem to be about the same as the rest of it.

    – Tim
    1 hour ago











  • I am asking why it goes up instead of down. It it solely for the sake of composition? I offer the example of C4 ... does it resolve the same higher or lower? If not then the B also resolves (best) to the lower C, in of itself.

    – Randy Zeitman
    1 hour ago






  • 1





    I still don’t understand. A C does not “resolve” to another C because there is no tension between two Cs. There is tension between a B and a C. Also in the title you ask about the 7th scale degree. That makes sense. In the key of C the sevent scale degree is B. So talking about the seventh or B resolving makes sense. Talking about the eighth scale degree or the first scale degree (C) resolving doesn’t make sense.

    – Todd Wilcox
    57 mins ago












  • Ok, does one sound 'better' ... why would C4 to C3 sound the same as C4 to C5? I tried to edit the question. The C 'resolving' is an example to show that up/down does matter, just not what is the adjacent note.

    – Randy Zeitman
    42 mins ago













2












2








2








Music theory articles say:



1) The 1,3,5 are 'stable' and the 2,4,6,7 are 'unstable'.



2)
The 2 most likely resolves down to the 1.
The 4 most likely resolves down to the 3.
The 6 most likely resolves down to the 5.
But the 7 resolves up to the 1.



The question is, does the 7 actually, technically, resolve more strongly to the 'lower' tonic (1) than the 'higher' tonic but compositionally it sounds better to resolve to the upper tonic?



For example, ignoring the 7, if C4 (middle C) resolves more strongly to C4 than C5 then it would stand to reason that B actually resolves better to the lower tonic but it's always listed as going to the higher tonic because it's more compositionally useful.










share|improve this question
















Music theory articles say:



1) The 1,3,5 are 'stable' and the 2,4,6,7 are 'unstable'.



2)
The 2 most likely resolves down to the 1.
The 4 most likely resolves down to the 3.
The 6 most likely resolves down to the 5.
But the 7 resolves up to the 1.



The question is, does the 7 actually, technically, resolve more strongly to the 'lower' tonic (1) than the 'higher' tonic but compositionally it sounds better to resolve to the upper tonic?



For example, ignoring the 7, if C4 (middle C) resolves more strongly to C4 than C5 then it would stand to reason that B actually resolves better to the lower tonic but it's always listed as going to the higher tonic because it's more compositionally useful.







theory voice-leading






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 37 mins ago









Peter

3,165524




3,165524










asked 2 hours ago









Randy ZeitmanRandy Zeitman

495212




495212







  • 2





    Are you asking about whether C4 sounds stronger going to C3 or C5, or are you asking if B4 sounds stronger going to C4 or C5? I thought you were asking the latter, since B is the seventh scale degree of the C major scale that would normally resolve to a C of some sort. C4 to C3 (or C5) is not what I would call a "resolution".

    – Todd Wilcox
    2 hours ago












  • The question is phrased in a confusing way. especially in that the last paragraph doesn't seem to be about the same as the rest of it.

    – Tim
    1 hour ago











  • I am asking why it goes up instead of down. It it solely for the sake of composition? I offer the example of C4 ... does it resolve the same higher or lower? If not then the B also resolves (best) to the lower C, in of itself.

    – Randy Zeitman
    1 hour ago






  • 1





    I still don’t understand. A C does not “resolve” to another C because there is no tension between two Cs. There is tension between a B and a C. Also in the title you ask about the 7th scale degree. That makes sense. In the key of C the sevent scale degree is B. So talking about the seventh or B resolving makes sense. Talking about the eighth scale degree or the first scale degree (C) resolving doesn’t make sense.

    – Todd Wilcox
    57 mins ago












  • Ok, does one sound 'better' ... why would C4 to C3 sound the same as C4 to C5? I tried to edit the question. The C 'resolving' is an example to show that up/down does matter, just not what is the adjacent note.

    – Randy Zeitman
    42 mins ago












  • 2





    Are you asking about whether C4 sounds stronger going to C3 or C5, or are you asking if B4 sounds stronger going to C4 or C5? I thought you were asking the latter, since B is the seventh scale degree of the C major scale that would normally resolve to a C of some sort. C4 to C3 (or C5) is not what I would call a "resolution".

    – Todd Wilcox
    2 hours ago












  • The question is phrased in a confusing way. especially in that the last paragraph doesn't seem to be about the same as the rest of it.

    – Tim
    1 hour ago











  • I am asking why it goes up instead of down. It it solely for the sake of composition? I offer the example of C4 ... does it resolve the same higher or lower? If not then the B also resolves (best) to the lower C, in of itself.

    – Randy Zeitman
    1 hour ago






  • 1





    I still don’t understand. A C does not “resolve” to another C because there is no tension between two Cs. There is tension between a B and a C. Also in the title you ask about the 7th scale degree. That makes sense. In the key of C the sevent scale degree is B. So talking about the seventh or B resolving makes sense. Talking about the eighth scale degree or the first scale degree (C) resolving doesn’t make sense.

    – Todd Wilcox
    57 mins ago












  • Ok, does one sound 'better' ... why would C4 to C3 sound the same as C4 to C5? I tried to edit the question. The C 'resolving' is an example to show that up/down does matter, just not what is the adjacent note.

    – Randy Zeitman
    42 mins ago







2




2





Are you asking about whether C4 sounds stronger going to C3 or C5, or are you asking if B4 sounds stronger going to C4 or C5? I thought you were asking the latter, since B is the seventh scale degree of the C major scale that would normally resolve to a C of some sort. C4 to C3 (or C5) is not what I would call a "resolution".

– Todd Wilcox
2 hours ago






Are you asking about whether C4 sounds stronger going to C3 or C5, or are you asking if B4 sounds stronger going to C4 or C5? I thought you were asking the latter, since B is the seventh scale degree of the C major scale that would normally resolve to a C of some sort. C4 to C3 (or C5) is not what I would call a "resolution".

– Todd Wilcox
2 hours ago














The question is phrased in a confusing way. especially in that the last paragraph doesn't seem to be about the same as the rest of it.

– Tim
1 hour ago





The question is phrased in a confusing way. especially in that the last paragraph doesn't seem to be about the same as the rest of it.

– Tim
1 hour ago













I am asking why it goes up instead of down. It it solely for the sake of composition? I offer the example of C4 ... does it resolve the same higher or lower? If not then the B also resolves (best) to the lower C, in of itself.

– Randy Zeitman
1 hour ago





I am asking why it goes up instead of down. It it solely for the sake of composition? I offer the example of C4 ... does it resolve the same higher or lower? If not then the B also resolves (best) to the lower C, in of itself.

– Randy Zeitman
1 hour ago




1




1





I still don’t understand. A C does not “resolve” to another C because there is no tension between two Cs. There is tension between a B and a C. Also in the title you ask about the 7th scale degree. That makes sense. In the key of C the sevent scale degree is B. So talking about the seventh or B resolving makes sense. Talking about the eighth scale degree or the first scale degree (C) resolving doesn’t make sense.

– Todd Wilcox
57 mins ago






I still don’t understand. A C does not “resolve” to another C because there is no tension between two Cs. There is tension between a B and a C. Also in the title you ask about the 7th scale degree. That makes sense. In the key of C the sevent scale degree is B. So talking about the seventh or B resolving makes sense. Talking about the eighth scale degree or the first scale degree (C) resolving doesn’t make sense.

– Todd Wilcox
57 mins ago














Ok, does one sound 'better' ... why would C4 to C3 sound the same as C4 to C5? I tried to edit the question. The C 'resolving' is an example to show that up/down does matter, just not what is the adjacent note.

– Randy Zeitman
42 mins ago





Ok, does one sound 'better' ... why would C4 to C3 sound the same as C4 to C5? I tried to edit the question. The C 'resolving' is an example to show that up/down does matter, just not what is the adjacent note.

– Randy Zeitman
42 mins ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















2














No. It resolves most strongly to the one it's adjacent to.






share|improve this answer























  • The 2,3,6,7 each have two notes adjacent.

    – Randy Zeitman
    2 hours ago


















2














When talking about resolutions, most if not all times the smaller the distance is the better resolution. In this case hands down the leading tone wants to resolve step wise up, not down a major 7th. That resolution would be jarring to most.



To take a step back, there is no difference from a harmony perspective from any octave equivalence in terms of generic harmony so 1, 8, 15, ect are all treated as the root note your scale/key so the idea 8 would be weaker than 1 is not correct in general terms and in this case 7 will really want to go to 8.






share|improve this answer























  • You seem to be saying what I said - the reason is compositional. But in an isolated situation would you prefer C4 to resolve to C3 or C5?

    – Randy Zeitman
    2 hours ago











  • Either. Without knowing more about the scenario, there's not enough to say one way or another. Jumping an octave if not handled with care can be quite jarring up or down so I'd be more concerned about that.

    – Dom
    2 hours ago












  • Play it on piano and see for yourself. I think it's clear that a note resolves better to its lower octave than higher.

    – Randy Zeitman
    1 hour ago


















0















The question is, does the 7 actually, technically, resolve more strongly to the 'lower' tonic (1) than the 'higher' tonic but compositionally it sounds better to resolve to the upper tonic?




I don't understand your distinction between what's "technically" right and what's "compositionally" right. In music, composition comes first, and theory is used to describe the composition.



So the reason we say that the 7th scale degree resolves up to the 1st is because that's how composers have traditionally resolved the 7th scale degree.




For example, ignoring the 7, if C4 (middle C) resolves more strongly to C4 than C5 then it would stand to reason that B actually resolves better to the lower tonic but it's always listed as going to the higher tonic because it's more compositionally useful.




This is not a good example because there is no tension between octaves. The concept of resolution in Western music theory is based on the idea of tension between the various notes. If you feel that C4 to C3 is stronger than C4 to C5, then you can certainly use that preference to influence your personal compositional style, but it is not something that has yet been incorporated into standard music theory.






share|improve this answer























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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2














    No. It resolves most strongly to the one it's adjacent to.






    share|improve this answer























    • The 2,3,6,7 each have two notes adjacent.

      – Randy Zeitman
      2 hours ago















    2














    No. It resolves most strongly to the one it's adjacent to.






    share|improve this answer























    • The 2,3,6,7 each have two notes adjacent.

      – Randy Zeitman
      2 hours ago













    2












    2








    2







    No. It resolves most strongly to the one it's adjacent to.






    share|improve this answer













    No. It resolves most strongly to the one it's adjacent to.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 2 hours ago









    Laurence PayneLaurence Payne

    38.3k1873




    38.3k1873












    • The 2,3,6,7 each have two notes adjacent.

      – Randy Zeitman
      2 hours ago

















    • The 2,3,6,7 each have two notes adjacent.

      – Randy Zeitman
      2 hours ago
















    The 2,3,6,7 each have two notes adjacent.

    – Randy Zeitman
    2 hours ago





    The 2,3,6,7 each have two notes adjacent.

    – Randy Zeitman
    2 hours ago











    2














    When talking about resolutions, most if not all times the smaller the distance is the better resolution. In this case hands down the leading tone wants to resolve step wise up, not down a major 7th. That resolution would be jarring to most.



    To take a step back, there is no difference from a harmony perspective from any octave equivalence in terms of generic harmony so 1, 8, 15, ect are all treated as the root note your scale/key so the idea 8 would be weaker than 1 is not correct in general terms and in this case 7 will really want to go to 8.






    share|improve this answer























    • You seem to be saying what I said - the reason is compositional. But in an isolated situation would you prefer C4 to resolve to C3 or C5?

      – Randy Zeitman
      2 hours ago











    • Either. Without knowing more about the scenario, there's not enough to say one way or another. Jumping an octave if not handled with care can be quite jarring up or down so I'd be more concerned about that.

      – Dom
      2 hours ago












    • Play it on piano and see for yourself. I think it's clear that a note resolves better to its lower octave than higher.

      – Randy Zeitman
      1 hour ago















    2














    When talking about resolutions, most if not all times the smaller the distance is the better resolution. In this case hands down the leading tone wants to resolve step wise up, not down a major 7th. That resolution would be jarring to most.



    To take a step back, there is no difference from a harmony perspective from any octave equivalence in terms of generic harmony so 1, 8, 15, ect are all treated as the root note your scale/key so the idea 8 would be weaker than 1 is not correct in general terms and in this case 7 will really want to go to 8.






    share|improve this answer























    • You seem to be saying what I said - the reason is compositional. But in an isolated situation would you prefer C4 to resolve to C3 or C5?

      – Randy Zeitman
      2 hours ago











    • Either. Without knowing more about the scenario, there's not enough to say one way or another. Jumping an octave if not handled with care can be quite jarring up or down so I'd be more concerned about that.

      – Dom
      2 hours ago












    • Play it on piano and see for yourself. I think it's clear that a note resolves better to its lower octave than higher.

      – Randy Zeitman
      1 hour ago













    2












    2








    2







    When talking about resolutions, most if not all times the smaller the distance is the better resolution. In this case hands down the leading tone wants to resolve step wise up, not down a major 7th. That resolution would be jarring to most.



    To take a step back, there is no difference from a harmony perspective from any octave equivalence in terms of generic harmony so 1, 8, 15, ect are all treated as the root note your scale/key so the idea 8 would be weaker than 1 is not correct in general terms and in this case 7 will really want to go to 8.






    share|improve this answer













    When talking about resolutions, most if not all times the smaller the distance is the better resolution. In this case hands down the leading tone wants to resolve step wise up, not down a major 7th. That resolution would be jarring to most.



    To take a step back, there is no difference from a harmony perspective from any octave equivalence in terms of generic harmony so 1, 8, 15, ect are all treated as the root note your scale/key so the idea 8 would be weaker than 1 is not correct in general terms and in this case 7 will really want to go to 8.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 2 hours ago









    DomDom

    37.2k19110228




    37.2k19110228












    • You seem to be saying what I said - the reason is compositional. But in an isolated situation would you prefer C4 to resolve to C3 or C5?

      – Randy Zeitman
      2 hours ago











    • Either. Without knowing more about the scenario, there's not enough to say one way or another. Jumping an octave if not handled with care can be quite jarring up or down so I'd be more concerned about that.

      – Dom
      2 hours ago












    • Play it on piano and see for yourself. I think it's clear that a note resolves better to its lower octave than higher.

      – Randy Zeitman
      1 hour ago

















    • You seem to be saying what I said - the reason is compositional. But in an isolated situation would you prefer C4 to resolve to C3 or C5?

      – Randy Zeitman
      2 hours ago











    • Either. Without knowing more about the scenario, there's not enough to say one way or another. Jumping an octave if not handled with care can be quite jarring up or down so I'd be more concerned about that.

      – Dom
      2 hours ago












    • Play it on piano and see for yourself. I think it's clear that a note resolves better to its lower octave than higher.

      – Randy Zeitman
      1 hour ago
















    You seem to be saying what I said - the reason is compositional. But in an isolated situation would you prefer C4 to resolve to C3 or C5?

    – Randy Zeitman
    2 hours ago





    You seem to be saying what I said - the reason is compositional. But in an isolated situation would you prefer C4 to resolve to C3 or C5?

    – Randy Zeitman
    2 hours ago













    Either. Without knowing more about the scenario, there's not enough to say one way or another. Jumping an octave if not handled with care can be quite jarring up or down so I'd be more concerned about that.

    – Dom
    2 hours ago






    Either. Without knowing more about the scenario, there's not enough to say one way or another. Jumping an octave if not handled with care can be quite jarring up or down so I'd be more concerned about that.

    – Dom
    2 hours ago














    Play it on piano and see for yourself. I think it's clear that a note resolves better to its lower octave than higher.

    – Randy Zeitman
    1 hour ago





    Play it on piano and see for yourself. I think it's clear that a note resolves better to its lower octave than higher.

    – Randy Zeitman
    1 hour ago











    0















    The question is, does the 7 actually, technically, resolve more strongly to the 'lower' tonic (1) than the 'higher' tonic but compositionally it sounds better to resolve to the upper tonic?




    I don't understand your distinction between what's "technically" right and what's "compositionally" right. In music, composition comes first, and theory is used to describe the composition.



    So the reason we say that the 7th scale degree resolves up to the 1st is because that's how composers have traditionally resolved the 7th scale degree.




    For example, ignoring the 7, if C4 (middle C) resolves more strongly to C4 than C5 then it would stand to reason that B actually resolves better to the lower tonic but it's always listed as going to the higher tonic because it's more compositionally useful.




    This is not a good example because there is no tension between octaves. The concept of resolution in Western music theory is based on the idea of tension between the various notes. If you feel that C4 to C3 is stronger than C4 to C5, then you can certainly use that preference to influence your personal compositional style, but it is not something that has yet been incorporated into standard music theory.






    share|improve this answer



























      0















      The question is, does the 7 actually, technically, resolve more strongly to the 'lower' tonic (1) than the 'higher' tonic but compositionally it sounds better to resolve to the upper tonic?




      I don't understand your distinction between what's "technically" right and what's "compositionally" right. In music, composition comes first, and theory is used to describe the composition.



      So the reason we say that the 7th scale degree resolves up to the 1st is because that's how composers have traditionally resolved the 7th scale degree.




      For example, ignoring the 7, if C4 (middle C) resolves more strongly to C4 than C5 then it would stand to reason that B actually resolves better to the lower tonic but it's always listed as going to the higher tonic because it's more compositionally useful.




      This is not a good example because there is no tension between octaves. The concept of resolution in Western music theory is based on the idea of tension between the various notes. If you feel that C4 to C3 is stronger than C4 to C5, then you can certainly use that preference to influence your personal compositional style, but it is not something that has yet been incorporated into standard music theory.






      share|improve this answer

























        0












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        The question is, does the 7 actually, technically, resolve more strongly to the 'lower' tonic (1) than the 'higher' tonic but compositionally it sounds better to resolve to the upper tonic?




        I don't understand your distinction between what's "technically" right and what's "compositionally" right. In music, composition comes first, and theory is used to describe the composition.



        So the reason we say that the 7th scale degree resolves up to the 1st is because that's how composers have traditionally resolved the 7th scale degree.




        For example, ignoring the 7, if C4 (middle C) resolves more strongly to C4 than C5 then it would stand to reason that B actually resolves better to the lower tonic but it's always listed as going to the higher tonic because it's more compositionally useful.




        This is not a good example because there is no tension between octaves. The concept of resolution in Western music theory is based on the idea of tension between the various notes. If you feel that C4 to C3 is stronger than C4 to C5, then you can certainly use that preference to influence your personal compositional style, but it is not something that has yet been incorporated into standard music theory.






        share|improve this answer














        The question is, does the 7 actually, technically, resolve more strongly to the 'lower' tonic (1) than the 'higher' tonic but compositionally it sounds better to resolve to the upper tonic?




        I don't understand your distinction between what's "technically" right and what's "compositionally" right. In music, composition comes first, and theory is used to describe the composition.



        So the reason we say that the 7th scale degree resolves up to the 1st is because that's how composers have traditionally resolved the 7th scale degree.




        For example, ignoring the 7, if C4 (middle C) resolves more strongly to C4 than C5 then it would stand to reason that B actually resolves better to the lower tonic but it's always listed as going to the higher tonic because it's more compositionally useful.




        This is not a good example because there is no tension between octaves. The concept of resolution in Western music theory is based on the idea of tension between the various notes. If you feel that C4 to C3 is stronger than C4 to C5, then you can certainly use that preference to influence your personal compositional style, but it is not something that has yet been incorporated into standard music theory.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 24 mins ago









        PeterPeter

        3,165524




        3,165524



























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