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Is it wrong to omit object pronouns in these sentences?
How can I combine these sentences?Is “very much” correct in these sentences?Is “these couple sentences” acceptable English?Do these sentences form right?Are these sentences grammatically correct?Can you clear my grammar doubts in these sentences?Why do we use subject pronouns in place of object pronouns?How can i omit “ which , that , who and passive voice ” in sentences ?Are these sentences grammatically accurate?Do these sentences with “misunderstand” sound natural?
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
- I asked (him) to clean his room.
- I demanded (him) to take me to the hospital by car.
- I told (him) to make up with his friend.
I think it isn't grammatically wrong to omit "him", because we can see clearly it's not "I" to clean, take, and make up by context.
Q1) Would native speakers omit objects if context is clear even if it's not grammatically correct?
Q2) Are those sentences grammatically wrong if him is omitted?
grammaticality
edited 3 hours ago
J.R.♦
101k8129250
asked 8 hours ago
FloretFloret
7021823
add a comment |
- I asked (him) to clean his room.
- I demanded (him) to take me to the hospital by car.
- I told (him) to make up with his friend.
I think it isn't grammatically wrong to omit "him", because we can see clearly it's not "I" to clean, take, and make up by context.
Q1) Would native speakers omit objects if context is clear even if it's not grammatically correct?
Q2) Are those sentences grammatically wrong if him is omitted?
grammaticality
edited 3 hours ago
J.R.♦
101k8129250
asked 8 hours ago
FloretFloret
7021823
add a comment |
- I asked (him) to clean his room.
- I demanded (him) to take me to the hospital by car.
- I told (him) to make up with his friend.
I think it isn't grammatically wrong to omit "him", because we can see clearly it's not "I" to clean, take, and make up by context.
Q1) Would native speakers omit objects if context is clear even if it's not grammatically correct?
Q2) Are those sentences grammatically wrong if him is omitted?
grammaticality
edited 3 hours ago
J.R.♦
101k8129250
asked 8 hours ago
FloretFloret
7021823
- I asked (him) to clean his room.
- I demanded (him) to take me to the hospital by car.
- I told (him) to make up with his friend.
I think it isn't grammatically wrong to omit "him", because we can see clearly it's not "I" to clean, take, and make up by context.
Q1) Would native speakers omit objects if context is clear even if it's not grammatically correct?
Q2) Are those sentences grammatically wrong if him is omitted?
grammaticality
grammaticality
edited 3 hours ago
J.R.♦
101k8129250
asked 8 hours ago
FloretFloret
7021823
edited 3 hours ago
J.R.♦
101k8129250
asked 8 hours ago
FloretFloret
7021823
edited 3 hours ago
J.R.♦
101k8129250
edited 3 hours ago
J.R.♦
101k8129250
edited 3 hours ago
J.R.♦
101k8129250
101k8129250
asked 8 hours ago
FloretFloret
7021823
asked 8 hours ago
FloretFloret
7021823
asked 8 hours ago
FloretFloret
7021823
7021823
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
Yes, it is wrong to omit those objects, and native speakers would not do it. It's actually not clear that it is not "I" doing the cleaning and taking if you omit them.
"I asked to clean his room" means that I asked for permission to clean his room; that is, "I" want to do the cleaning. Otherwise, the object needs to be specified: "I asked him to clean his room."
Similarly, "I demanded " implied that "I" am the subject of the infinitive, as in "I demanded to speak to a manager." Again, "I" am the one who is going to do the speaking. When demanding something of someone else, you need to change the preposition to match, as well as specifying the object: "I demanded of him to take me" or, better: "I demanded that he take me."
"Told" is a purely transitive verb, so it's completely ungrammatical to omit the object. "I told to make up" is simply incorrect and does not mean anything at all. You need to specify the object: "I told him to make up."
answered 7 hours ago
geekahedrongeekahedron
3845
New contributor
geekahedron is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
"told" can be used with an implied object, generally in reference to reporting a misdeed. "They asked Jane to keep their secret, but she told" or "Jack told on me" Not the same contruction as in the question, of course.
– David Siegel
7 hours ago
An object can be "me" or "myself", but it can't be "I". In "I asked to clean his room", the infinitive is the object of "asked", and "his room" is the object of "clean" within the infinitive. "I demanded to speak to a manager" works exactly the same way. "I" is not in any way an object in either case. Only in the "I demanded that he take me" example is "me" an object (but not "I", which is purely nominative).
– Monty Harder
5 hours ago
The pronoun can be omitted in the first sentence. (As you yourself say, contradicting your first sentence.) Just not in the second or third sentences.
– Jason Bassford
4 hours ago
@JasonBassford It can be omitted, but doing so results in a different meaning.
– Acccumulation
30 mins ago
add a comment |
In the 1st sentence "I asked (him) to clean his room." you can omit "him," but it is then not clear whom you asked.
In the 2nd sentence "I demanded (him) to take me to the hospital by car" you can also omit "him," but it is then again not clear whom you demanded.
In the 3d sentence "I told (him) to make up with his friend." you cannot omit him, because "told" without a pronoun has no sense.
answered 7 hours ago
JanJan
1,072311
2
This is not quite correct. The first sentence, at least, has meaning, just not the intended meaning. But in any case I have downvoted this answer because it is too brief -- it gives no explanation why, and provides no examples of when you can and can not omit the indirect object.
– Andrew
7 hours ago
I did not read the sentences carefully, so I edited my answer.
– Jan
7 hours ago
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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Yes, it is wrong to omit those objects, and native speakers would not do it. It's actually not clear that it is not "I" doing the cleaning and taking if you omit them.
"I asked to clean his room" means that I asked for permission to clean his room; that is, "I" want to do the cleaning. Otherwise, the object needs to be specified: "I asked him to clean his room."
Similarly, "I demanded " implied that "I" am the subject of the infinitive, as in "I demanded to speak to a manager." Again, "I" am the one who is going to do the speaking. When demanding something of someone else, you need to change the preposition to match, as well as specifying the object: "I demanded of him to take me" or, better: "I demanded that he take me."
"Told" is a purely transitive verb, so it's completely ungrammatical to omit the object. "I told to make up" is simply incorrect and does not mean anything at all. You need to specify the object: "I told him to make up."
answered 7 hours ago
geekahedrongeekahedron
3845
New contributor
geekahedron is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
"told" can be used with an implied object, generally in reference to reporting a misdeed. "They asked Jane to keep their secret, but she told" or "Jack told on me" Not the same contruction as in the question, of course.
– David Siegel
7 hours ago
An object can be "me" or "myself", but it can't be "I". In "I asked to clean his room", the infinitive is the object of "asked", and "his room" is the object of "clean" within the infinitive. "I demanded to speak to a manager" works exactly the same way. "I" is not in any way an object in either case. Only in the "I demanded that he take me" example is "me" an object (but not "I", which is purely nominative).
– Monty Harder
5 hours ago
The pronoun can be omitted in the first sentence. (As you yourself say, contradicting your first sentence.) Just not in the second or third sentences.
– Jason Bassford
4 hours ago
@JasonBassford It can be omitted, but doing so results in a different meaning.
– Acccumulation
30 mins ago
add a comment |
Yes, it is wrong to omit those objects, and native speakers would not do it. It's actually not clear that it is not "I" doing the cleaning and taking if you omit them.
"I asked to clean his room" means that I asked for permission to clean his room; that is, "I" want to do the cleaning. Otherwise, the object needs to be specified: "I asked him to clean his room."
Similarly, "I demanded " implied that "I" am the subject of the infinitive, as in "I demanded to speak to a manager." Again, "I" am the one who is going to do the speaking. When demanding something of someone else, you need to change the preposition to match, as well as specifying the object: "I demanded of him to take me" or, better: "I demanded that he take me."
"Told" is a purely transitive verb, so it's completely ungrammatical to omit the object. "I told to make up" is simply incorrect and does not mean anything at all. You need to specify the object: "I told him to make up."
answered 7 hours ago
geekahedrongeekahedron
3845
New contributor
geekahedron is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
"told" can be used with an implied object, generally in reference to reporting a misdeed. "They asked Jane to keep their secret, but she told" or "Jack told on me" Not the same contruction as in the question, of course.
– David Siegel
7 hours ago
An object can be "me" or "myself", but it can't be "I". In "I asked to clean his room", the infinitive is the object of "asked", and "his room" is the object of "clean" within the infinitive. "I demanded to speak to a manager" works exactly the same way. "I" is not in any way an object in either case. Only in the "I demanded that he take me" example is "me" an object (but not "I", which is purely nominative).
– Monty Harder
5 hours ago
The pronoun can be omitted in the first sentence. (As you yourself say, contradicting your first sentence.) Just not in the second or third sentences.
– Jason Bassford
4 hours ago
@JasonBassford It can be omitted, but doing so results in a different meaning.
– Acccumulation
30 mins ago
add a comment |
Yes, it is wrong to omit those objects, and native speakers would not do it. It's actually not clear that it is not "I" doing the cleaning and taking if you omit them.
"I asked to clean his room" means that I asked for permission to clean his room; that is, "I" want to do the cleaning. Otherwise, the object needs to be specified: "I asked him to clean his room."
Similarly, "I demanded " implied that "I" am the subject of the infinitive, as in "I demanded to speak to a manager." Again, "I" am the one who is going to do the speaking. When demanding something of someone else, you need to change the preposition to match, as well as specifying the object: "I demanded of him to take me" or, better: "I demanded that he take me."
"Told" is a purely transitive verb, so it's completely ungrammatical to omit the object. "I told to make up" is simply incorrect and does not mean anything at all. You need to specify the object: "I told him to make up."
answered 7 hours ago
geekahedrongeekahedron
3845
New contributor
geekahedron is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Yes, it is wrong to omit those objects, and native speakers would not do it. It's actually not clear that it is not "I" doing the cleaning and taking if you omit them.
"I asked to clean his room" means that I asked for permission to clean his room; that is, "I" want to do the cleaning. Otherwise, the object needs to be specified: "I asked him to clean his room."
Similarly, "I demanded " implied that "I" am the subject of the infinitive, as in "I demanded to speak to a manager." Again, "I" am the one who is going to do the speaking. When demanding something of someone else, you need to change the preposition to match, as well as specifying the object: "I demanded of him to take me" or, better: "I demanded that he take me."
"Told" is a purely transitive verb, so it's completely ungrammatical to omit the object. "I told to make up" is simply incorrect and does not mean anything at all. You need to specify the object: "I told him to make up."
answered 7 hours ago
geekahedrongeekahedron
3845
New contributor
geekahedron is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 5 hours ago
answered 7 hours ago
geekahedrongeekahedron
3845
New contributor
geekahedron is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 7 hours ago
geekahedrongeekahedron
3845
answered 7 hours ago
geekahedrongeekahedron
3845
3845
New contributor
geekahedron is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
geekahedron is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
"told" can be used with an implied object, generally in reference to reporting a misdeed. "They asked Jane to keep their secret, but she told" or "Jack told on me" Not the same contruction as in the question, of course.
– David Siegel
7 hours ago
An object can be "me" or "myself", but it can't be "I". In "I asked to clean his room", the infinitive is the object of "asked", and "his room" is the object of "clean" within the infinitive. "I demanded to speak to a manager" works exactly the same way. "I" is not in any way an object in either case. Only in the "I demanded that he take me" example is "me" an object (but not "I", which is purely nominative).
– Monty Harder
5 hours ago
The pronoun can be omitted in the first sentence. (As you yourself say, contradicting your first sentence.) Just not in the second or third sentences.
– Jason Bassford
4 hours ago
@JasonBassford It can be omitted, but doing so results in a different meaning.
– Acccumulation
30 mins ago
add a comment |
"told" can be used with an implied object, generally in reference to reporting a misdeed. "They asked Jane to keep their secret, but she told" or "Jack told on me" Not the same contruction as in the question, of course.
– David Siegel
7 hours ago
An object can be "me" or "myself", but it can't be "I". In "I asked to clean his room", the infinitive is the object of "asked", and "his room" is the object of "clean" within the infinitive. "I demanded to speak to a manager" works exactly the same way. "I" is not in any way an object in either case. Only in the "I demanded that he take me" example is "me" an object (but not "I", which is purely nominative).
– Monty Harder
5 hours ago
The pronoun can be omitted in the first sentence. (As you yourself say, contradicting your first sentence.) Just not in the second or third sentences.
– Jason Bassford
4 hours ago
@JasonBassford It can be omitted, but doing so results in a different meaning.
– Acccumulation
30 mins ago
"told" can be used with an implied object, generally in reference to reporting a misdeed. "They asked Jane to keep their secret, but she told" or "Jack told on me" Not the same contruction as in the question, of course.
– David Siegel
7 hours ago
"told" can be used with an implied object, generally in reference to reporting a misdeed. "They asked Jane to keep their secret, but she told" or "Jack told on me" Not the same contruction as in the question, of course.
– David Siegel
7 hours ago
An object can be "me" or "myself", but it can't be "I". In "I asked to clean his room", the infinitive is the object of "asked", and "his room" is the object of "clean" within the infinitive. "I demanded to speak to a manager" works exactly the same way. "I" is not in any way an object in either case. Only in the "I demanded that he take me" example is "me" an object (but not "I", which is purely nominative).
– Monty Harder
5 hours ago
An object can be "me" or "myself", but it can't be "I". In "I asked to clean his room", the infinitive is the object of "asked", and "his room" is the object of "clean" within the infinitive. "I demanded to speak to a manager" works exactly the same way. "I" is not in any way an object in either case. Only in the "I demanded that he take me" example is "me" an object (but not "I", which is purely nominative).
– Monty Harder
5 hours ago
The pronoun can be omitted in the first sentence. (As you yourself say, contradicting your first sentence.) Just not in the second or third sentences.
– Jason Bassford
4 hours ago
The pronoun can be omitted in the first sentence. (As you yourself say, contradicting your first sentence.) Just not in the second or third sentences.
– Jason Bassford
4 hours ago
@JasonBassford It can be omitted, but doing so results in a different meaning.
– Acccumulation
30 mins ago
@JasonBassford It can be omitted, but doing so results in a different meaning.
– Acccumulation
30 mins ago
add a comment |
In the 1st sentence "I asked (him) to clean his room." you can omit "him," but it is then not clear whom you asked.
In the 2nd sentence "I demanded (him) to take me to the hospital by car" you can also omit "him," but it is then again not clear whom you demanded.
In the 3d sentence "I told (him) to make up with his friend." you cannot omit him, because "told" without a pronoun has no sense.
answered 7 hours ago
JanJan
1,072311
2
This is not quite correct. The first sentence, at least, has meaning, just not the intended meaning. But in any case I have downvoted this answer because it is too brief -- it gives no explanation why, and provides no examples of when you can and can not omit the indirect object.
– Andrew
7 hours ago
I did not read the sentences carefully, so I edited my answer.
– Jan
7 hours ago
add a comment |
In the 1st sentence "I asked (him) to clean his room." you can omit "him," but it is then not clear whom you asked.
In the 2nd sentence "I demanded (him) to take me to the hospital by car" you can also omit "him," but it is then again not clear whom you demanded.
In the 3d sentence "I told (him) to make up with his friend." you cannot omit him, because "told" without a pronoun has no sense.
answered 7 hours ago
JanJan
1,072311
2
This is not quite correct. The first sentence, at least, has meaning, just not the intended meaning. But in any case I have downvoted this answer because it is too brief -- it gives no explanation why, and provides no examples of when you can and can not omit the indirect object.
– Andrew
7 hours ago
I did not read the sentences carefully, so I edited my answer.
– Jan
7 hours ago
add a comment |
In the 1st sentence "I asked (him) to clean his room." you can omit "him," but it is then not clear whom you asked.
In the 2nd sentence "I demanded (him) to take me to the hospital by car" you can also omit "him," but it is then again not clear whom you demanded.
In the 3d sentence "I told (him) to make up with his friend." you cannot omit him, because "told" without a pronoun has no sense.
answered 7 hours ago
JanJan
1,072311
In the 1st sentence "I asked (him) to clean his room." you can omit "him," but it is then not clear whom you asked.
In the 2nd sentence "I demanded (him) to take me to the hospital by car" you can also omit "him," but it is then again not clear whom you demanded.
In the 3d sentence "I told (him) to make up with his friend." you cannot omit him, because "told" without a pronoun has no sense.
answered 7 hours ago
JanJan
1,072311
edited 6 hours ago
answered 7 hours ago
JanJan
1,072311
answered 7 hours ago
JanJan
1,072311
answered 7 hours ago
JanJan
1,072311
1,072311
2
This is not quite correct. The first sentence, at least, has meaning, just not the intended meaning. But in any case I have downvoted this answer because it is too brief -- it gives no explanation why, and provides no examples of when you can and can not omit the indirect object.
– Andrew
7 hours ago
I did not read the sentences carefully, so I edited my answer.
– Jan
7 hours ago
add a comment |
2
This is not quite correct. The first sentence, at least, has meaning, just not the intended meaning. But in any case I have downvoted this answer because it is too brief -- it gives no explanation why, and provides no examples of when you can and can not omit the indirect object.
– Andrew
7 hours ago
I did not read the sentences carefully, so I edited my answer.
– Jan
7 hours ago
2
2
This is not quite correct. The first sentence, at least, has meaning, just not the intended meaning. But in any case I have downvoted this answer because it is too brief -- it gives no explanation why, and provides no examples of when you can and can not omit the indirect object.
– Andrew
7 hours ago
This is not quite correct. The first sentence, at least, has meaning, just not the intended meaning. But in any case I have downvoted this answer because it is too brief -- it gives no explanation why, and provides no examples of when you can and can not omit the indirect object.
– Andrew
7 hours ago
I did not read the sentences carefully, so I edited my answer.
– Jan
7 hours ago
I did not read the sentences carefully, so I edited my answer.
– Jan
7 hours ago
add a comment |
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